essay paper upsc 2022

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UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Question Paper - Download PDF

The UPSC Mains Essay paper was conducted on Friday, 16th September 2022, in the forenoon session (9 AM to 12 PM). The UPSC Mains 2022 is set to take place on 16, 17, 18, 24 and 25th September 2022.

For other papers in the Mains segment of UPSC, candidates can further check the UPSC Mains 2022 Question Papers page at their own behest.

UPSC Mains Essay Questions 2022 – Download PDF Here

UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Questions

The UPSC Essay paper segment consists of two sections. They are Section A and Section B. Both sections have about four questions each. The candidates have to choose one topic from each section, thus having to answer 2 essay questions in total.

The word limit for each question is to be within the range of 1000-1200 words. The mark for each question is 125, thus, the total allotted marks are about 250.

The paper will be included in the merit ranking.

The Essay Topics asked in the UPSC Mains 2022 are given below:

• Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence.
• Pets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world.
• History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man.
• A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for.

Section – B

1. The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining.

2. You cannot step twice in the same river.

3. A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities.

4. Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

Candidates can also refer to the UPSC Mains 2021 Essay Questions , in the given link.

Some of the useful links for the candidates to prepare for an essay paper are as follows:

The candidates may be required to write essays on multiple topics. While answering the essay questions, the aspirants are expected to keep close to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in an orderly manner and to write concisely. It is important to remember that credit will be given for effective and exact expression.

To download the question paper PDFs of General Studies papers, the aspirants can check the links below:

The candidates can also download the question paper PDFs of UPSC Mains 2022 Optional Paper from the linked article.

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[UPSC Mains 2022] ESSAY PAPER- UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM (CSE) 2022

• September 16, 2022

Important Updates , UPSC MAINS 2022 QUESTION PAPERS

1) Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence.

2) Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world.

3) History is a series of victorious won by the scientific man over the romantic man.

4) A ship in harbor is safe, but that is not what a ship is for.

1) The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining.

2) You cannot step twice in the same river.

3) A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities.

4) Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Paper Discussion – By Sunil Oberoi Sir Retd. IAS

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(Download) UPSC Mains 2022 Question Paper: Essay Compulsory

• Marks : 250 (125x2)
• Duration: 3 hours
• Exam Date:  16-09-2022
• Year : 2022
• Exam Date : 

Write Two Essays, choosing One from each of the Sections A and B, in about 1000-1200 words each.

Section-a (125 marks) - choose any one essay, q-1.forests are the best case studies for economic excellence., q-2.poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world., q-3.history is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man., q-4.a ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for., download upsc mains essay (compulsory) papers pdf, section-b (125 marks)- choose any one essay, q-1.the time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining., q-2.you cannot step twice in the same river., q-3.a smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities., q-4.just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right., click here to download full papers pdf, (e-book) upsc mains essay (compulsory) papers ( 2000-2020 ) pdf, download upsc mains gs 10 year papers pdf, download upsc pre gs 10 year papers pdf, download upsc mains gs solved papers pdf, printed study material for ias mains general studies, printed study material for ias mains essay, << go back to main page.

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UPSC CSE MAINS 2022 ESSAY PAPER ANALYSIS

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on September 16 conducted the first paper of CSE Mains 2022 that is the Essay Paper.

Essay Paper UPSC 2022 Instructions

• Total Marks: 250 marks, Time duration: 3 hours.
• The essay must be written in the medium authorized in the admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this question-cum-answer (QCA) booklet in the space provided.
• No marks will be given for answers written in the medium other than the authorized one.
• Word limit, as specified, should be adhered to.
• Any page or portion of the page left blank, must be struck off clearly.

Write two essays, choosing one topic from each of the following Sections A and B, in about 1000-1200 words each:

• Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence.
• Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world.
• History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man.
• A ship in the harbour is safe but that is not what a ship is for.
• The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining.
• You cannot step twice in the same river.
• Smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities.
• Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

UPSC CSE Main 2022 essay paper analysis

• There has been a trend of increased number of philosophical essays in the past couple of years however this time around the benchmark was higher than the previous few years. However, considering the philosophical base of the questions, most candidates found the questions tricky. It was not easy to write 1000 words on each topic within the time constraints.
• UPSC has ensured that the essay topics were much different from the GS questions.
• Rather than asking candidates to write on topics that most candidates are familiar with or have practiced with, UPSC now assesses candidates' essay writing skills by providing them with abstract or philosophical topics.
• This year most of the themes were either proverbs or famous quotes.
• All 8 topics this year will test applicants' spontaneous thinking, understanding, writing and time management.
• Topics required broad interpretation
• Themes asked:
• Poetic language as a tool to re-institute order in human society. 
• Getting out of one’s comfort zone 
• Do the right things at the right time
•  You won’t get the exact time/experience twice.
• Importance of smile
• Theme related to choices and decision making

It is necessary to know that why essay paper is required in a competitive exam?

UPSC notification says that “candidates may be required to write essays on multiple topics. They will be expected to keep closely to the subject of the essay, to arrange their ideas in an orderly fashion, and to write concisely. Credit will be given for effective and exact expression.”

What can one make out from this? The following quote of Abraham Lincoln very aptly answers the question…..

‘Writing’ (essay) of the aspirant works as a window, for the highly experienced examiner, to the thought process of the candidate. Examiner will not only evaluate the content of the aspirant but also his thought process, viewpoints on critical matters, clarity in thinking, ability to explain his view point concisely and effectively, ability of coherence and putting his ideas in an orderly fashion, language. In a nutshell, it acts as a mean to bring out the traits of a potential civil servant and to evaluate if he is fit to be one.

Having discussed about the importance of the paper, it is essential to clear the misconceptions associated with essay paper before moving to how to prepare for it.

• There is no preparation required for essay paper-GS and optional knowledge will suffice.

Truth. This is wrong way of thinking. In GS marks will be awarded just for content. But in essay, examiner will pay attention to more than content as explained above.

• One needs to be champion in English-use technical jargons, vocabulary.

Truth. It is worth noting that in UPSC CSE, the simpler the language the better it is. There is no need of flowery jargons and expressions. 

•   There is no difference between language paper essay and ‘Essay’ paper.

Truth. This is highly misconceived notion on the part of aspirants to treat the essay paper just like essays asked in the language papers. The importance of both is vastly different. One is aimed to judge the language of the aspirant whereas the other is aimed to bring out the true traits of a potential Civil Servant. 

• Essay paper can’t be prepared so easily.

Truth. This is again a misconception. There have been candidates who have drastically increased their marks from scores like 100-110 to 150-160 with proper strategy and preparation. It is worth noting that essay paper requires relatively lesser effort to improve as compared to GS papers. The rate of investment is quite high.

From where to prepare for the essay paper?

• GS and optional preparation will give content.
• Reading non-fiction: will help to develop thinking process.
• Anecdotes, stories, quotes, facts and figures: A separate notebook should be kept for the same.
• Referring to magazines: Yojana, Kurukshetra, EPW, Economic Survey, DowntoEarth.
• Newspaper editorials, relevant lines said by eminent/constitutional posts like President, PM etc.
• Essay transcripts of previous year toppers.

How to prepare for the essay?

• Firstly read the transcripts of previous year toppers to get a feel of what comprises a well-written essay. 
• A separate notebook for essay should be prepared where fodder collected from the above mentioned sources should be written in point format. 
• An aspirant should prepare material on all the general topics that have been asked in the exam previously. This should include quotations, facts/ figures, anecdotes, sayings, case studies, government schemes.
• Give stress to the thoughts of philosophers like Immanuel Kant, Thomas Aquinas, John Locke, Friedrich Niche, Karl Marx etc. Start writing essays on famous quotes.
• Whenever aspirant takes a particular topic, he should to try to think of all the possible themes/ dimensions of it. For eg: Consider the topic “With great power, comes great responsibility”. Aspirant can think of the topic from SPECLIH perspective- Social, Political, Economic, Cultural, Legal, International and Humanistic. This is one way of covering multiple dimensions.
• Read different kinds of essays – particularly philosophical essays. Give stress to the thoughts of philosophers like Immanuel Kant, Thomas Aquinas, John Locke, Friedrich Niche, Karl Marx etc. 
• Next step is to write essays. Pick up the previous year papers and practice them at home in exam conditions. Self-evaluate and get a feedback from mentors, peers and teachers.

How to approach an essay? 

• Aspirant should have clear cut plan ready for attempting the essay paper. It should be clear in his mind before entering the examination hall how he is going to manage the time. The answers to following questions should be ready beforehand. 
• How much time will be devoted in choosing the topic?
• How much time will be devoted in interpreting the topic?
• How much time will be devoted in making a rough skeleton of the essay?
• How much time will be devoted in attempting the essay?
• How much time will be devoted in revising and underlining the keywords?
• Aspirant should always keep a buffer of 10 minutes in order to meet any exigency.

Eg: Topic Selection: 5 minutes, Brainstorming: 10-15 minutes, writing: 1 hour, revision: 5 minutes.

• First thing is choosing the right topic from each section. This will depend upon the aspirant’s holistic understanding of the topic. Do not get swayed by the fact that since it is an easy topic I won’t choose it. I will choose unconventional topic just to impress the examiner. This is wrong way of thinking.
• Next thing is to interpret the topic. One should understand the theme of the topic. THE MOST IMPORTANT THING ABOUT ESSAY WRITING IS PROPER UNDERSTANDING OF THE TOPIC AND “WRITING ON THAT TOPIC”. DOING THIS MUCH ENSURES THAT ONE WILL NOT GET BELOW ANERAGE MARKS.
• Brainstorm and prepare skeleton of the topic:
• Every essay should have an introduction, body and conclusion.
• Introduction: can be a fictitious story, real life anecdote, quote, a paragraph on what all is going be covered in the essay.
• Themes/ dimensions to be covered eg: SPECLIH, temporal, sectoral, walks of life, problem and solution format.
• Quotes, sayings, anecdotes, facts/ figures.
• Conclusion: it should always be on a futuristic and optimistic note. Summarize the essay in 4 to 5 lines and then write the vision for future. Some saying, quote, lines of eminent personalities can be used.
• Structuring of the essay:
• Language should  be  simple and clear
• Keep the sentences short and powerful
• An occasional use of powerful word or jargon can give the essay an edge
• Proper subheadings
• Transition smoothly from one para to the next through a link sentence/ through a question

What to avoid in the essay?

• Aspirant should never give one-sided arguments or viewpoints which are against constitutional spirit.
• Never focus excessively on only one dimension or theme.
• Always write what is asked not what one knows.
• Do not give disproportionate amount of time to one essay avoiding the other one.
• Avoid criticizing the government, its policies and schemes.
• Avoid being seen as a person belonging to a particular ideology.
• Avoid writing in bullets, making diagrams, figures, charts. Essay should always be in continuous para format.

It is often seen that aspirants do not give the necessary attention to the essay paper. They spend months preparing for the optional and the GS papers but hardly give dedicated time to essay paper. This leads them to score poorly in the exam and they fail to get the edge which they could have easily achieved with a proper strategy and preparation for the essay paper. If one compares GS papers score with that of essay one can find out that it is difficult to achieve a score of 120-125 marks in the former whereas aspirants touch 150 and even 160 in the essay paper which gives them an edge of almost 30 marks. CSE topper 2017 scored just 100 marks in the essay paper of CSE 2015 whereas after making the necessary effort and rectifying his mistakes he was able to score 155 in CSE 2017.

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Lukmaan IAS

A Blog for IAS Examination

"THE 400 DREAMS" (ALL INDIA SCHOLARSHIP TEST)

Courses test series, our selections, essay question paper: upsc cse mains 2022.

• Compiled by Lukmaan IAS
• September 16, 2022
• Essay Paper Analysis , UPSC Essay Paper-2022 , UPSC Paper Analysis , UPSC PAPER-2022

Table of Contents

• 1. Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence
• 2. Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world
• 3. History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man
• 4. A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for
• 5. The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining
• 6. You cannot step twice in the same river
• 7. A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities
• 8. Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right

SOCIOLOGY OPTIONAL QUESTION PAPER : UPSC CSE Mains-2022

Public admin. (paper-ii) question paper : upsc cse mains-2022, public admin. (paper-i) question paper : upsc cse mains-2022, gs paper-4 upsc cse mains-2022.

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UPSC Civil Services Mains 2022 Essay Paper

UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2022: The Union Public Service Commission started the UPSC Civil Services Main Exam 2022 on September 16, 2022. The UPSC mains exam started on September 16, 2022 , and will be held on 17, 18, 24, and 25, 2022, at various locations around the country. GeeksforGeeks have brought the UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2022 to make your exam preparation perfect. 

The highest score in the Mains Written level is crucial since 7 out of 9 papers are counted for merit ranking. Preliminary level marks, on the other hand, are not counted for merit ranking. As a result, the candidate’s attention should not only be on passing the exam but also on obtaining the best and highest possible grades. 

To gain a notion of Important Essay Topics for UPSC 2023 , one needs at least to look at the previous seven years of UPSC Essay Topics. Practicing the UPSC Essay Topics of Previous Years helps throughout the UPSC Mains exam, and the aspirant may ace the essay paper with enough preparation.

UPSC 2022 Mains Essay Question Paper:

The UPSC Essay paper is divided into two portions. Section A and Section B are the two. Each segment has four questions. Candidates must select one topic from each section, resulting in a total of two essay questions.

The word count for each question should be between 1000 and 1200 . Each question is worth 125 marks , thus the total number of marks is 250. The question paper will be evaluated on merit.

The Essay Topics asked in the UPSC Mains 2022 are given below:

1) Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence.

2) Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world.

3) History is a series of victorious won by the scientific man over the romantic man.

4) A ship in harbor is safe, but that is not what a ship is for. 

1) The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining. 

2) You cannot step twice in the same river. 

3) A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities. 

4) Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

Aspirants can evaluate and plan their approach for the Civil Services Examination’s Mains level based on the question paper of 2022. UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Paper UPSC Mains 2022 GS Paper 1 UPSC Mains 2022 GS Paper 2 UPSC Mains 2022 GS Paper 3 UPSC Mains 2022 GS Paper 4

UPSC Mains Essay Previous Year Question Paper:

• UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2021
• UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2020
• UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2019
• UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2018
• UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2017
• UPSC Mains Essay Paper  2016 

How to Score Marks on UPSC Mains Essay Topics?

Writing provides insight into your cognitive process. This is precisely what the examiner looks at when reading your answer script. An essay is essentially a well-organized collection of ideas on any given topic. Mastering the skill of getting the highest possible grade on a test involves a lot of effort and dedication. The UPSC Mains essay is more than just a test of factual knowledge; it is also a test of creativity and confidence. 

Follow these strategies to get high marks in the UPSC Mains Essay paper:

1. Choose your topic carefully

The UPSC Essay paper 2022 is divided into two portions, and applicants must write one essay from each area. Both essays are worth 125 points and are 1000-1200 words long. Before choosing a topic, consider if it is too contentious or whether you have enough facts to write about it.

2. Think about the subject

Once you’ve decided on a topic, think about it and jot down the essential keywords you’ll use in your essay. Try to take a multifaceted approach to the essay and stick to a decent format of introduction, body, and conclusion.

3. Structure the essay in a proper manner

The opening paragraph is the heart of the essay and should provide a clear overview of the issue. The main focus should be on your thoughts on the subject. The primary body of the essay should be broken into little paragraphs that are interconnected nicely. The essay’s wording should be simple, clear, and easy to grasp. 

The UPSC Mains essay assesses your critical thinking abilities rather than your use of fancy language. Facts and statistics should be supplied whenever necessary. The use of quotations and sayings strengthens the essays. The final paragraph should speak for itself. Candidates should aim to write the essay in an unbiased or balanced manner.

Economic Growth, women empowerment, art & culture, media & society, social justice or poverty, education, renowned quotes from notable individuals , and other themes are among the UPSC Essay Topics.

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UPSC CSE Mains Essay Paper 2022

UPSC CSE Mains Examination 2022 began from 16th September 2022 and will end on 25th September 2022.

Table of Contents

The UPSC CSE conducted by UPSC has three stages – Prelims, Mains and Interview. The UPSC Prelims 2022 was conducted on 5 th June 2022 and the results for UPSC CSE Prelims were announced on 22 nd June 2022.

UPSC CSE Mains Examination 2022 began from 16 th September 2022 and will end on 25 th September 2022

The UPSC CSE Mains Examination checks the intellectual traits and depth of understanding of candidates, rather than merely the range of their knowledge.

The UPSC Main (Written) exam would be conducted for a period of 5 days – 16th, 17th, 18th, 24th and 25th September 2022.

Candidates can check the timetable for UPSC CSE Mains Examination 2022 from the link given below.

UPSC CSE Mains Examination 2022 Timetable

UPSC CSE Mains 2022 Essay Paper Analysis

The candidates have to write two essays, one from each section. Out of 8 questions, the candidate has to choose and write on two essay topics. The candidates are expected to write the answers in about 1000-1200 words for each essay. The duration for the UPSC CSE Mains Essay paper is of 3 hours. The Essay paper was held in the morning session on 16 th September 2022 from 9 AM to 12 PM.

UPSC CSE Mains Essay Paper 2022 Questions

• Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence
• Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world
• History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man
• A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for
• The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining
• You cannot step twice in the same river
• A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities
• Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

The candidates can check the UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Question Paper PDF from the link given below.

UPSC CSE Mains Essay Question Paper 2022 PDF Download

Based on the analysis, here are a few opinions and reviews about the essay paper:

• Most of the candidates felt that the essay paper was tough as compared to last year.
• Looking at the essay paper of Mains 2022, the candidates felt that the paper was unpredictable.
• Also, the veterans who are writing the Mains exam, not for the first time, felt that this year’s paper was a bit similar in nature to last year’s paper.
• In general, section A would contain topics related to social issues, policymaking etc. which extensively demand quoting of a lot of factual information. Whereas, section B would have abstract or philosophical topics. But since 2021 in essay paper, both the section have philosophical or abstract topics.
• Essay paper from last year is testing whether the candidates have their own thinking process which is deep, analytical and philosophical.
• A few candidates felt that this paper checks the personality of the candidate, which cannot be learnt or gained overnight by studying facts from books, magazines or other sources.

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[Download pdf] UPSC IAS Mains 2022 – Essay Question Paper

PYQ Discussion 2024 Batch-1, An opportunity to revise 2011-2023 PYQ’s, Batch Starts 24th April 2024 Click Here   for more information

UPSC IAS Mains 2022 Examinations have started with the essay paper. After the completion of the examination in the first session, UPSC IAS Mains 2022 Essay Question Paper is out. If you are preparing for the 2023 examination, you can go through the question paper and check the type of topics that are being asked.

Download pdf of UPSC IAS Mains 2022 – Essay Question Paper or View the Images of UPSC IAS Mains 2022 – Essay Question Paper below:

• Forests are the best case studies of economic excellence
• Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world
• History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic men
• A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what a ship is meant for
• The time to repair the roof is when sun is shining
• You cannot step twice in the same river
• A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities
• Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right

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GS Paper 4 UPSC 2022 (Mains): Question Paper and Analysis

Last updated on September 19, 2022 by ClearIAS Team

UPSC conducted the  General Studies Paper 4 , as part of the Civil Services Main Exam 2022 on 18-09-2022.There were 12 questions split into two sections – A and B.Case studies were included in Section B. Many questions had sub-sections.

Table of Contents

GS Paper 4 UPSC 2022: Instructions

• Total Marks: 250 marks, Time duration: 3 hours.
• There are 12 questions divided into two sections and printed both in ENGLISH and HINDI.
• All questions are compulsory.
• The number of marks carried by a question/part is printed against it.
• Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this question-cum-answer (QCA) booklet in the space provided.
• No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.
• Keep the word limit indicated in the questions in mind.
• Any page or portion of the page left blank, must be struck off clearly.
• The content of the answer is more important than its length.

General Studies Paper 4 Question Paper – UPSC Civil Services Main Exam (Written) 2022

Qn1(a). Wisdom lies in knowing what to reckon with and what to overlook. An officer being engrossed with the periphery ignoring the core issues before him is not rare in the Bureaucracy. Do you agree that such preoccupation of an administrator leads to travesty of justice to the cause of effective service delivery and good governance? Critically evaluate (150 words)

Qn2(a). The Rules and Regulations provided to all the Civil servants are same, yet there is difference in the performance. Positive minded officers are able to interpret the Rules and Regulations in favour of the case and achieve success, Whereas, negative minded officers are unable to achieve goals by interacting the same Rules and Regulations against the case. Discuss with illustrations.

(b)It is believed that adherence to ethics in human actions would ensure in smooth functioning of an organization / system. If so, what does ethics seek to promote in human life? How do how do ethical values assist in the resolution of conflicts faced by him in his day to day functioning?

Qn3. What does each of the following quotations mean to you? (a) “Ethics is knowing the difference between what you have the right to do and what is right to do. “-Potter Stewart (b) “If a country is to be corruption free and become a nation of beautiful minds, I strongly feel that there are three key societal members who can make a difference They are father, mother and teacher.”- APJ Abdul Kalam

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(c) “Judge your success by what you had to give up in order to get it”- Dalai Lama

Qn4(a)What do you understand by the term ‘good governance? How far recent initiatives in terms of e-Governance steps taken by the State have helped the beneficiaries? Discuss with suitable examples.

(b) Online methodology is being used for day-to-day meetings, institutional approvals in the administration and for teaching and learning in education sector to the extent telemedicine in the health sector is getting popular with the approval of the competent authority. No doubt it has advantages and disadvantages for both the beneficiaries and the system at large. Describe and discuss reticle issues involved in the use of the online method, particularly to the vulnerable section of the society.

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Qn5(a). Russia and Ukraine war has been going on for the last seven months. Different countries have taken independent stands and actions keeping in view their own national interests. We are all aware that war has its own impact on the different aspects of society, including human tragedy. What are those ethical issues that are crucial to be considered while launching the war and its continuation so far? Illustrate with justification the ethical issues involved in the given state of affairs.

(b) Write short notes on the following in 30 words each:

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Qn7 There was another dimension which was causing him deep mental torture and agony . This pertained to his personal precarious financial health . He was a single earner in the family with two school – college going children and his old ailing mother . The heavy expenditure on education and medical was causing a big strain to his monthly pay packet . Regular EMI for housing loan taken from bank was unavoidable and any default would render him liable for severe legal action . In the above backdrop , he was hoping for some miracle to happen . There was sudden turn of events . His secretary informed that a gentleman – Subhash Verma wanted to see him as he was interested in the position of Manager which was to be filled in by him in the company . He further brought to his notice that his CV has been received through the office of the Minister of Defence . During interview of the candidate Subhash Verma , he found him technically sound , resourceful and experienced marketeer . He seemed to be well – conversant with tendering procedures and having knack of follow – up and liaising in this regard . Prabhat felt that he was better choice than the rest of the candidates who were interviewed by him in the last few days . Subhash Verma also indicated that he was in possession of the copies of the bid documents that the Unique Electronics Ltd. would be submitting the next day to the Defence Ministry for their tender . He offered to hand over those documents subject to his employment in the company on suitable terms and conditions . He made it clear that in the process , the Sterling Electric Ltd. could outbid their rival company and get the bid and hefty Defence Ministry order . He indicated that it will be win – win situation for both him and the company . Prabhat was absolutely stunned . It was a mixed feeling of shock and thrill . He was uncomfortable and perspiring . If accepted , all his problems would vanish instantly and he may be rewarded for securing the much awaited tender and thereby boosting company’s sales and financial health . He was in a fix as to the future course of action . He was wonder – struck at the guts of Subhash Verma in having surreptitiously removing his own company papers and offering to the rival company for a job . Being an experienced person , he was examining the pros and cons of the proposal / situation and he asked him to come the next day . (a) Discuss the ethical issues involved in the case . (b) Critically examin the options available to Prabhat in the above situation. (c) Which of the above would be the most appropriate for Prabhat and why?

Qn8 Ramesh is State Civil Services Officer who got the opportunity of getting posted to the capital of a border State after rendering 20 years of service . Ramesh’s mother has recently been detected cancer and has been admitted in the leading cancer hospital of the city . His two adolescent children have also got admission in one of the best public schools of the town . After settling down in his appointment as Director in the Home Department of the State , Ramesh got confidential report through intelligence sources that illegal migrants are infiltrating in the State from the neighbouring country . He decided to personally carry out surprise check of the border posts along with his Home Department team . To his surprise , he caught red – handed two families of 12 members infiltrated with the connivance of the security personnel at the border posts . On further inquiry and investigation , it was found that after the migrants from neighbouring country infiltrate , their documentation like Aadhaar Card , Ration Card and Voter Card are also forged and they are made to settle down in a particular area of the State . Ramesh prepared the detailed and comprehensive report and submitted to the Additional Secretary of the State . However , he has summoned by the Additional Home Secretary after a week and was instructed to withdraw the report . The Additional Home Secretary informed Ramesh that the report submitted by him has not been appreciated by the higher authorities . He further cautioned him that if he fails to withdraw the confidential report , he will not only be posted out from the prestigious appointment from the State capital but his further promotion which is due in near future will also get in jeopardy . (a) What are the options available to Ramesh as the Director of the Home Department of the bordering State ? (b) What option should Ramesh adopt and why ? (c) Critically evaluate each of the options . (d) What are the ethical dilemmas being faced by Ramesh ? (e) What policy measures would you suggest to combat the menace of infiltration of illegal migrants from the neighbouring country ?

Qn9 The Supreme Court has banned mining in the Aravalli Hills to stop degradation of the forest cover and to maintain ecological balance . However , the stone mining was still prevalent in the border district of the affected State with connivance of certain corrupt forest officials and politicians . Young and dynamic SP who was recently posted in the affected district promised to himself to stop this menace . In one of his surprise checks with his team , he found loaded truck with stone trying to escape the mining area . He tried to stop the truck but the truck driver overrun the police officer , killing him on the spot and thereafter managed to flee . Police filed FIR but no breakthrough was achieved in the case for almost three months . Ashok who was the Investigative Journalist working with leading TV channel , suo moto started investigating the case . Within one month , Ashok got breakthrough by interacting with local people , stone mining mafia and government officials , He prepared his investigative story and presented to the CMD of the TV channel . He exposed in his investigative report the complete nexus of stone mafia working with blessing of corrupt police and civil officials and politicians . The politician who was involved in the mafia was no one else but local MLA who was considered to be very close to the Chief Minister . After going through the investigative report , the CMD advised Ashok to drop the idea of making the story public through electronic media . He informed that the local MLA was not only the relative of the owner of the TV channel but also had unofficially 20 percent share in the channel . The CMD further informed Ashok that his further promotion and hike in pay will be taken care of in addition the soft loan of 10 lakhs which he has taken from the TV channel for his son’s chronic disease will be suitably adjusted if he hands over the investigative report to him . (a) What are the options available with Ashok to cope up with the situation ? (b) Critically evaluate / examine each of the options identified by Ashok . (c) What are the ethical dilemmas being faced by Ashok ? (d) Which of the options , do you think , would be the most appropriate for Ashok to adopt and why ? (e) In the above scenario , what type of training would you suggest for police officers posted to such districts where stone mining illegal activities are rampant ?

Qn10  You have done MBA from a reputed institution three years back but could not get campus placement due to COVID – 19 generated recession . However , after a lot of persuasion and series of competitive tests including written and interview , you managed to get a job in a leading shoe company You have aged parents who are dependent and staying with you . You also recently got married after getting this decent job . You were allotted the Inspection Section which is responsible for clearing the final product . In first one year , you learnt your job well and was appreciated for your performance by the management . The company is doing good business for last five years in domestic market and this year it is decided even to export to Europe and Gulf countries . However , one large consignment to Europe was rejected by their Inspecting Team due to certain poor quality and was sent back . The top management ordered that ibid consignment to be cleared for the domestic market . As a part of Inspecting Team , you observed the glaring poor quality and brought to the knowledge of the Team Commander . However , the top management advised all the members of the team to overlook these defects as the management cannot bear such a huge loss . Rest of the team members except you promptly signed and cleared the consignment for domestic market , overlooking glaring defects . You again brought to the knowledge of the Team Commander that such consignment , if cleared even for domestic market , will tarnish the image and feputation of the company and will be counter – productive in the long run . However , you were further.advised by the top management that if you do not clear the consignment , the company will not hesitate to terminate your services citing certain innocuous reasons.

GS4 Question Paper Analysis

GS Paper 4 deals with  Ethics, Integrity, and Aptitude . This is a dynamic paper – with multiple dimensions.

The paper really checked the quick-decision making skills and overall aptitude of the candidate for the job of a future civil servant.

Regarding case studies, most were connected to an ethical angle. However, it was not easy to satisfactorily answer case studies within the time constraints.

Important Take-Aways from the GS Paper 4 UPSC 2022 (Mains) – Question Paper

This paper stressed the importance of conceptual understanding in certain crucial areas like Ethics, Values, Aptitude etc.

Questions based on quotes were asked. Many questions focused on seeking examples from candidates – rather than theory. Examples will be game-changer. Topics like good governance, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), Whistleblowing, Rule of law were asked.

We recommend all aspirants go through the  ClearIAS online notes on Ethics, Integrity, and Aptitude .

Read the  UPSC syllabus and previous year’s question papers multiple times. Prepare self-notes on every keyword (Eg: Crisis of conscience – which got repeated again).

There are no major surprises this year for those candidates who had carefully analysed the  previous year’s UPSC question papers . This year’s paper followed more or less the previous year’s trends.

The Ethics paper should be taken seriously to score high. It needs a different kind of preparation. Along with conceptual knowledge, the  right practice and time managment  are also crucial for success.

What do you think of this year’s General Studies Paper 4 questions? What are your comments about this paper?

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UPSC 2022 Question Paper with Detailed Explanation of Prelims

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the Civil Services Examination (CSE) Prelims Exam on June 5, 2022. Check UPSC 2022 Question Paper with explanation here in this article.

Table of Contents

UPSC 2022 Question Paper

The Civil Services Examination (CSE) Prelims 2022 was administered on June 5, 2022 by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). Aspirants looking for the Prelims 2022 question papers may not go anywhere else. The UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2022 for GS Paper I has been provided here by Study IQ with the answer key and detailed explanation. To assess their performance, candidates can check The UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Papers.

Additionally, we have made available the UPSC Prelims 2022 Answer Key, which was created by CSE Experts. This will enable applicants to evaluate their performance and start preparing for the UPSC Mains Exam as necessary.

UPSC 2022 Question Paper With Explanation

The objective paper, with 100 questions and 200 marks, is part of the UPSC Prelims Paper 1. The paper covers topics including geography, science and technology, environment and ecology, politics, economy, history, and geography. The cut-off and whether a candidate has qualified for the first stage of the exam to write the UPSC Mains will be determined by the total scores of the UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper 1. The UPSC Prelims 2022 Questions has been mentioned below.

Q1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative

(d) World Bank

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Both, the “Rapid Financing Instrument” and the “Rapid Credit Facility”, are assistive credit lending facilities for Low-Income Countries ( LICs ) provided by the International Monetary Fund ( IMF ). 

• Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI):  It is a lending facility which provides rapid financial assistance. It is available to all member countries facing an urgent Balance of Payments ( BoP ) need. It is Flexible : It is a financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of all the member countries and can be used in a wide range of circumstances. Assistance in the form of purchase : Financial assistance under the RFI is provided in the form of outright purchases without the need for a full fledged program or any reviews by the IMF. It is for richer economies : It is usually subscribed by non-PRGT eligible countries (particularly with richer economies).
• Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): This instrument is similar to the RFI except it provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries ( LICs ) who are facing BoP crisis. Made for Crisis : It was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust ( PRGT ) proposed in 1999 as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the needs of crisis ridden countries. It is limited : Access under the RCF is subject to annual and cumulative limits, with higher access limits applying for the large natural disaster window. It is for poorer economies : It is usually subscribed by PRGT eligible countries (particularly with poorer economies

Economy > External Sector

Difficulty-Medium

Analysis- Factual and analytical

Question Type- Current Affairs/Static

Sources: https://www.imf.org/en/About/Factsheets/IMF-Support-for-Low-Income-Countries 

https://www.imf.org/en/About/Factsheets/Sheets/2016/08/02/19/55/Rapid-Financing-Instrument

https://www.imf.org/en/About/Factsheets/IMF-Lending

https://www.imf.org/external/np/pdr/prsp/poverty2.htm

Q2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

• An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
• An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
• An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 is correct: Appreciation in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate ( NEER ) increases the value of domestic currency relative to the weighted average of a basket foreign currencies (typically 6 major foreign currencies). 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Real Effective Exchange Rate ( REER ) is a nation’s NEER but adjusted for inflation in the home country. Appreciation in REER would mean domestic currency getting stronger against foreign currencies. This would drive the cost of exports higher making them more expensive. This would result in a decline in competitiveness. 
• Statement 3 is correct: REER is the NEER after factoring in relative inflation (consumer price-based index). So when domestic inflation rises so does the difference between NEER and REER. 

Economy > Banking and Monetary Policy

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Source: https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/getting-real-about-reer-and-exports/2302036/

https://datahelp.imf.org/knowledgebase/articles/537469-what-is-nominal-effective-exchange-rate-neer

https://datahelp.imf.org/knowledgebase/articles/537472-what-is-real-effective-exchange-rate-reer

Q3. With reference to the Indian economy,  consider the following statements :

• If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
• If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
• If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 

• Buying and selling Government Securities ( G-Sec ) is part of RBI’s Open Market Operations to manage and control circulation of liquidity (money) in the economy. Through such operations any central bank of any country manages inflation and interest rates in its respective economy. 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: If the inflation is too high, the RBI would sell G-Sec to absorb excess liquidity from the market and reduce its circulation to drive down the demand in the absence of excess money.
• Statement 2 is correct: When rupee depreciated in the international market against the Dollar, the RBI would sell dollars in the market to increase its supply in relation to the rupee. Hence, save the currency from further depreciation. 
• Statement 3 is correct: If interest rates in the USA or European Union fall in comparison to interest rates and rate of return in the Indian market, then Foreign Institutional Investors ( FII ) are likely to invest their money in Indian markets for greater returns. In such a case the RBI would buy dollars from the market and increase the supply of the Indian Rupees to keep investing in the Indian economy competitive and attractive. 

Question Type – Static 

Source: https://www.financialexpress.com/money/your-money-central-banks-role-in-an-interconnected-world/2282240/

https://www.imf.org/en/About/Factsheets/Sheets/2016/08/01/16/20/Monetary-Policy-and-Central-Banking

Q4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the statements :

• It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
• It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

• Both statements are correct: The Common Framework for debt treatment is an initiative beyond G20’s Debt Service Suspension Initiative ( DSSI ) also endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.  It is a way to temporarily ease the financing constraints for these countries and free up scarce money that they can instead use to mitigate the human and economic impact of the Covid-19 crisis. 

Economy > External Sector 

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Factual

Question Type – Current Affairs

Source: https://www.mef.gov.it/en/G20-Italy/common-framework.html https://www.mef.gov.it/en/G20-Italy/common-framework.html https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/chad-becomes-first-country-to-ask-for-debt-overhaul-under-g20-common-framework/article33682498.ece

Q5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds  (IIBs)”?

• Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
• IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
• The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
• Inflation-Indexed Bonds are financial instruments that attempt to protect the bonds’ purchasing power by tying interest and principal payments to an index of price changes.
• Statement 1 is correct: The government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBS as the government can influence rate of inflation through its policies and thus changing the underlying variables of IIBs. 
• Statement 2 is correct: Return on the IIBs are linked to the WPI, where interest rates are provided with protection against inflation by paying fixed coupon rate on the principle adjusted against inflation. This way investors are protected from uncertainty regarding inflation. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The bonds do not receive any special tax benefits. Income tax rates are applied on these bonds beyond the prescribed limit.

Economy > Public Finance and Fiscal Policy

Source: https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=91 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inflation-indexed_bond https://www.businesstoday.in/magazine/expert-view/story/budget-2013-analysis-how-inflation-indexed-bonds-benefit-42038-2013-04-18

Q6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
• The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanations: 

• Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 define e-commerce entity (also foreign owned) as any person who owns, operates or manages digital or electronic facility or platform for electronic commerce.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As it is clear from the above definition, an e-commerce entity does not include a seller offering its services or goods for sale on a marketplace. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2021, has specified that an e-commerce marketplace entity shall not sell any goods owned or controlled by it on such e-commerce marketplace platform. All the sellers on the platform shall only be third party sellers, and no e-commerce store can be run on the e-commerce marketplace platform. Hence e commerce platform cannot own big sellers on their platform.

Economy > Applied Economics 

Difficulty – Hard

Analysis – Factual and Conceptual

Question Type – Current Affair

Source: https://consumeraffairs.nic.in/sites/default/files/E%20commerce%20rules.pdf https://dpiit.gov.in/sites/default/files/pn3_2016_0.pdf https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1595850

Q7. Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy?

• Farmers harvesting their crops
• Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
• A commercial bank lending money to a trading company Rupee
• A corporate body issuing Denominated Bonds overseas

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

• General Government Sector: Influences the quantity of money in the economy through its operations.
• Real Sector: It is the economy’s money holding sector.
• Financial Sector: It is the economy’s money issuing sector
• The real sector of an economy is the key section as activities of this sector persuade economic output and is represented by those economic segments that are essential for the progress of GDP of the economy. Option (a) is correct:  Real Sector refers to real economic transactions of an economy.
• Non-financial corporations
• Financial corporations
• General government
• Rest of the world

Economy > Basics of Economics 

Difficulty – Easy

Source: https://ccsenet.org/journal/index.php/ijef/article/download/75695/41844 https://www.cba.am/Storage/EN/publications/statistics/monetary_stat_manual/sectors.pdf https://www.imf.org/external/region/tlm/rr/pdf/Jan1.pdf

Q8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India ?

• An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
• A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
• An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
• A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
• Option (d) is correct: Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India. 
• The term has its origins in the Income Tax Amendment Act 2012 . This act introduced the concept of ‘retrospective taxation’ in the wake of a deal by Vodafone Ltd. in 2007 . As per the new amendment, Indirect Transfers were taxed. The amendments made by the 2012 Act clarified that if a company is registered or incorporated outside India, its shares will be deemed to be or have always been situated in India if they derive their value substantially from the assets located in India. As a result, the persons who sold such shares of foreign companies before the enactment of the Act (i.e., May 28, 2012) also became liable to pay tax on the income earned from such sale. 
• This policy of retrospective taxation dissuaded investors from investing in India. However, this provision was retracted in 2021 , hence the ‘retrospective taxation’ was nullified.

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Conceptual/Analytical

Question Type – Current Affairs/Static

Source: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/in/Documents/tax/Global%20Business%20Tax%20Alert/in-tax-gbt-alert-indirect-transfer-provisions-to-apply-prospectively-from-28-may-2012-noexp.pdf https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/cement/adani-holcim-deal-and-the-legacy-vodafone-tax-issue/articleshow/91619826.cms?from=mdr

Q9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
• Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

• Capital Expenditures (CapEx) are expenses used by a company to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment. For example, Costs to upgrade or purchase software, investing in new technology and computer equipment, are considered part of Capital Expenditure.
• Revenue Expenditures include the expenses required to meet the ongoing operational costs of running a business, and thus are essentially the same as Operating Expenses (OPEX) . It can be defined as the summation of all expenses incurred by a business through the course of production of its goods and services.
• Statement 1 is correct: Costs to upgrade or purchase software, investing in new technology and computer equipment, are considered part of Capital expenditure.
• Statement 2 is incorrect:  Both Debt Financing and Equity Financing are considered as part of capital receipts for the company, as capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. Funds from these would be used by the company for capital expenditure such as to grow or expand its operations .

Economy > Budget

Analysis – Conceptual 

Source: https://www.basu.org.in/wp-content/uploads/2020/04/CAPITAL-AND-REVENUE-EXPENDITURE.pdf

Q10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

• A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
• Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a)  1 only

• Household Financial Savings refer to currency, bank deposits, debt securities, mutual funds, pension funds, insurance, and investments in small savings schemes by households. 
• Public Debt is classified into internal and external debt. Internal debt consists of marketable debt and non-marketable debt. Marketable debt comprises Government dated securities and Treasury Bills, issued through auctions .
• Statement 1 is correct: The net household financial savings was 11.5 percent of GNDI (gross national disposable income) in 202021. A part of this financial saving goes toward government borrowing . The government borrows from the market through various measures.
• Statement 2 is correct: As at end-March 2021, outstanding amounts under dated securities stood at 71.7 lakh crore (36.3 percent of GDP) and accounted for 68.1 per cent of the total Public Debt .

Source: https://rbidocs.rbi.org.in/rdocs/AnnualReport/PDFs/0RBIAR2021226AD1119FF6674A13865C988DF70B4E1A.PDF https://dea.gov.in/sites/default/files/Final%20Status%20paper%202020-21.pdf https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/how-critical-are-household-savings-for-government-borrowing/1542170/

Q11. Consider the following statements :

• Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
• The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
• The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
• In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 only

• Statement 1 is correct: A committee under the chairmanship of H. N. Sanyal (Additional Solicitor General) was constituted in 1961 . The recommendations, which the committee made, took note of the importance given to freedom of speech in the Constitution and of the need for safeguarding the status and dignity of courts and interests of administration of justice. Pursuant of Sanyal Committee Report, the Contempt of Courts Act was passed in 1971 .
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 129 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to initiate contempt cases on its own, independent of the motion brought before it by the Attorney General (AG) or with the consent of the AG.  
• Statement 3 is incorrect:  The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.
• Statement 4 is correct: The Contempt of Court Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt. Hence the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws regarding contempt of court. 

Indian Indian Polity> Judiciary

Source: https://www.legalserviceindia.com/article/l255-Contempt-of-Court.html https://indianexpress.com/article/india/sc-even-law-cant-take-away-power-to-punish-for-contempt-7542797/

Q12. With reference to India, consider the following statements :

• Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
• Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

  Answer: B

• Advocate means a lawyer whose name has been entered in the State roll prepared and maintained by a state bar council under Section 17 of the Advocates Local Act., 1961 (25 of 1961) and who is a member of a State Bar Association or State Advocates Association . Whereas a Lawyer is any person who has completed the Degree of Law (whether 3 years LLB or 5 years Law course)
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: 
• Legal firm is a group of association of Advocate and not an entity to be recognised as an Advocate.
• An advocate cannot be a full-time salaried employee of any government, person, firm, corporation or concern, during the reign of his practice. Hence, any person be it company lawyer or patent Attorney on pay-roll, will not be recognised as an Advocate.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.

Indian Polity > Judiciary

Source: https://www.epw.in/journal/2018/2/commentary/reformation-legal-profession-interest-justice.html https://legalstudymaterial.com/lawyer-and-advocate-difference/ https://www.indiatoday.in/law/story/bar-council-india-amends-rules-curb-criticism-against-judges-1819920-2021-06-27

Q13. Consider the following statements :

• A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
• When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
• A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
• An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.  The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. 
• Statement 2 is correct: After the 24th Constitutional Amendment 1967 , the President does not have the power to withhold his assent to the bill or return it for reconsideration of the Parliament, if the bill seeks to amend the Constitution.
• Statement 3 is correct: Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting. Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses.

Indian Polity > Legislature

Q14. Consider the following statements :

• The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
• The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
• Article 74 of the Constitution deals with the status of the council of ministers while Article 75 deals with the appointment, tenure, responsibility, qualification, oath and salaries and allowances of the ministers.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not classify the members of the Council of Ministers into different ranks. It has been done informally on the British pattern through executive order in India. 
• Statement 2 is correct: But as per the 91 st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 , Strength Of Council Of Ministers should not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Q15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

• To ratify the declaration of Emergency
• To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
• To impeach the President of India

(a) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 352 (4) , it is the responsibility of the Parliament, not just Lok Sabha, to ratify proclamation of Emergency. 
• Statement 2 is correct: The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible before the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can cause the fall of the government by passing no confidence motion against the sitting government. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Article 61, process to remove the President, impeachment can be initiated by either house of the Parliament. Both houses are given equal powers in this regard. 

Q16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

• The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
• The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Anti-Defection Law a nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means a nominated member can join a political party within six months after being appointed in the house. 
• Statement 2 is correct: : The Anti Defection Law does not specify a time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Hence, there is no specific time limit.

Indian Polity > Miscellaneous

Q17. Consider the following statements:

• Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
• According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 76 of the Constitution only the Attorney General has the right to participate in the Parliamentary proceedings. This right is not extended to the Solicitor General of India.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Attorney General is not appointed by the Government. Instead, he is appointed by the President in consultation with the Government. However, traditionally, the Attorney General resigns from the office once the government resigns, as he is appointed on its advice. 

Indian Polity > Executive

Q18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

• Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
• Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
• Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

  Answer: D

• Mandamus (‘We command’) is one of five writs which are issued by courts in India (Supreme Court and High Courts). It is a command issued by the court to a public office/official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed to refuse to perform. 
• Quo Warranto (litt. ‘By what authority of warrant) is also one of five writs that are issued by courts in India. It is issued to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office (usually a constitutional or statutory office). This writ prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
• against a private individual or body.  
• to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force. 
• when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory to enforce a contractual obligation. 
• against the president of India or the state governors. 
• against the chief justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity.
• Statement 2 is correct:  As per UPSC official answer key this statement is correct.
• In India mandamus goes to all government departments and also local authorities like municipalities.”
•       Universities and other statutory bodies
•       Incorporated bodies like cooperative societies and joint stock companies.
•       Government companies.
•       Other private bodies on whom duties are imposed by statute.
• The High Courts have taken diametrically opposing views. For instance, a few High Courts on the one hand have thought that the writ could go even to a government company. but a few others have held on the other hand that the writ may not be issued to a statutory corporation like the Life Insurance Corporation. The position in relation to the above bodies is examined seriatim.
• Statement 3 is correct: The writ of Quo Warranto can only be issued in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character, that is created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Any interested person and not necessarily the aggrieved person can seek Quo Warranto writ.

Q19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

• Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
• As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
• It has seamless portability across the country.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Participation of healthcare institutions in Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission ( ABDM ) is voluntary . However, once a healthcare facility has registered with ABDM , every healthcare professional employed by that facility or institution must register himself/herself with Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem ( NDHE ).
• The mission has been conceptualised as a set of ‘ digital building blocks ’.
• Each building block is seen as a ‘digital public good’ that can be used by any entity in the digital health ecosystem and provides key capabilities that enable the ABDM vision.
• Statement 3 is correct: Creating seamless portability across various online platforms is one of the objectives of ABDM . 

Economy > Human Economy

Source: https://ndhm.gov.in/faq

Q20. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

• As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
• There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
• The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
• The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

• Article 93 provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker. The offices are regulated by constitutional provisions, Parliamentary Traditions and Conventions and Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business Rules.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place.
• The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker (date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Deputy Speaker being from the principal opposition party, is a parliamentary convention and not mandatory. There is no written rule for such an arrangement. 
• Statement 3 is correct: Deputy Speaker acts as the presiding officer in case of leave or in absence caused by death or illness of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. While performing his duties as the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker enjoys the same powers and privileges as the Speaker of Lok Sabha. 
• Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no such practice of needing the Prime Minister as a seconder while moving motion for Deputy Speaker.

Importance of Solving Previous Years’ Question Paper

• Candidates will better comprehend the present test format by resolving prelims question papers from prior years.
• Examining the topics that matter more in terms of the exam is beneficial.
• Candidates can assess the level of difficulty of the UPSC Exam paper, and it helps to keep track of changes to the format of the Prelims examination.
• The ability to analyze oneself, concentrate on one’s areas of weakness, and develop a strategy that works for one’s needs is the best benefit of solving IAS problems from the previous year.

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UPSC 2022 Question Paper FAQs

Is upsc 2022 prelims tough.

Both the papers have negative markings. As per the UPSC Prelims Analysis, the overall level of the UPSC IAS Prelims questions paper was mixed as aspirants found economics questions to be tough while polity had direct questions.

Was prelims 2022 easy?

It was definitely tough and random than any year in recent years. good balance between current affairs and static portion.

How many questions asked in UPSC Prelims 2022?

A total of 200 questions was asked in UPSC Prelims 2022

How many students qualify UPSC Prelims 2022?

In 2022, out of 11.52 lakhs candidates who applied for UPSC 2022, only 13090 cleared the Prelims exam.

Who is rank 32 in UPSC 2022?

Nitin Singh has secured AIR 32 in the UPSC IAS Civil Services Examination 2022.

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UPSC 2022 Question Paper with Detailed Explanation of Prelims

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the Civil Services Examination (CSE) Prelims Exam on June 5, 2022. Check UPSC 2022 Question Paper with explanation here in this article.

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UPSC 2022 Question Paper

The Civil Services Examination (CSE) Prelims 2022 was conducted on June 5, 2022, by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). Aspirants looking for the Prelims 2022 question papers may not go anywhere else. The UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2022 for GS Paper I has been provided here by Study IQ with the answer key and detailed explanation. To assess their performance, candidates can check The UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Papers.

Additionally, we have made available the UPSC Prelims 2022 Answer Key, which was created by CSE Experts. This will enable applicants to evaluate their performance and start preparing for the UPSC Mains Exam as necessary.

UPSC 2022 Prelims Question Paper PDF

Union Public Service Commission administers the UPSC Civil Services Examination annually for selecting candidates for different administrative services at the centre level. The first stage of the exam is prelims which is being conducted in two parts on the same day.

• UPSC GS Paper I
• UPSC GS Paper II ( CSAT )

Each paper lasts for two hours and carries 200 points. Both papers will receive negative marks. The IAS Prelims Syllabus should be reviewed by candidates to get a better understanding of the topics covered in the examination. Check the download link below:

UPSC 2022 Mains Question Paper PDF

Nine traditional essay-style questions covering a range of subjects are included in the UPSC Mains examination, with two of them functioning as qualifying questions. The final ranking is based on the grades received in each of the obligatory papers (Papers I through VI) as well as the interview and personality test. The two qualifying papers and the seven papers that earned merit rankings in the UPSC Main Examination are listed below:

UPSC 2022 Question Paper With Explanation

The objective paper, with 100 questions and 200 marks, is part of the UPSC Prelims Paper 1. The paper covers topics including science and technology, environment and ecology, politics, economy , history , and geography . The UPSC cut-off and whether a candidate has qualified for the first stage of the exam to write the UPSC Mains will be determined by the total scores of the UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper 1. The UPSC Prelims 2022 Questions have been mentioned below.

Q1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative

(d) World Bank

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Both, the “Rapid Financing Instrument” and the “Rapid Credit Facility”, are assistive credit lending facilities for Low-Income Countries ( LICs ) provided by the International Monetary Fund ( IMF ). 

• Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI):  It is a lending facility which provides rapid financial assistance. It is available to all member countries facing an urgent Balance of Payments ( BoP ) need. It is Flexible : It is a financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of all the member countries and can be used in a wide range of circumstances. Assistance in the form of purchase : Financial assistance under the RFI is provided in the form of outright purchases without the need for a full fledged program or any reviews by the IMF. It is for richer economies : It is usually subscribed by non-PRGT eligible countries (particularly with richer economies).
• Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): This instrument is similar to the RFI except it provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries ( LICs ) who are facing BoP crisis. Made for Crisis : It was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust ( PRGT ) proposed in 1999 as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the needs of crisis ridden countries. It is limited : Access under the RCF is subject to annual and cumulative limits, with higher access limits applying for the large natural disaster window. It is for poorer economies : It is usually subscribed by PRGT eligible countries (particularly with poorer economies

Economy > External Sector

Difficulty-Medium

Analysis- Factual and analytical

Question Type- Current Affairs/Static

Q2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

• An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
• An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
• An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 is correct: Appreciation in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate ( NEER ) increases the value of domestic currency relative to the weighted average of a basket foreign currencies (typically 6 major foreign currencies). 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Real Effective Exchange Rate ( REER ) is a nation’s NEER but adjusted for inflation in the home country. Appreciation in REER would mean domestic currency getting stronger against foreign currencies. This would drive the cost of exports higher making them more expensive. This would result in a decline in competitiveness. 
• Statement 3 is correct: REER is the NEER after factoring in relative inflation (consumer price-based index). So when domestic inflation rises so does the difference between NEER and REER. 

Economy > Banking and Monetary Policy

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q3. With reference to the Indian economy,  consider the following statements :

• If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
• If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
• If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 

• Buying and selling Government Securities ( G-Sec ) is part of RBI’s Open Market Operations to manage and control circulation of liquidity (money) in the economy. Through such operations any central bank of any country manages inflation and interest rates in its respective economy. 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: If the inflation is too high, the RBI would sell G-Sec to absorb excess liquidity from the market and reduce its circulation to drive down the demand in the absence of excess money.
• Statement 2 is correct: When rupee depreciated in the international market against the Dollar, the RBI would sell dollars in the market to increase its supply in relation to the rupee. Hence, save the currency from further depreciation. 
• Statement 3 is correct: If interest rates in the USA or European Union fall in comparison to interest rates and rate of return in the Indian market, then Foreign Institutional Investors ( FII ) are likely to invest their money in Indian markets for greater returns. In such a case the RBI would buy dollars from the market and increase the supply of the Indian Rupees to keep investing in the Indian economy competitive and attractive. 

Question Type – Static 

Q4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the statements :

• It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
• It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

• Both statements are correct: The Common Framework for debt treatment is an initiative beyond G20’s Debt Service Suspension Initiative ( DSSI ) also endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.  It is a way to temporarily ease the financing constraints for these countries and free up scarce money that they can instead use to mitigate the human and economic impact of the Covid-19 crisis. 

Economy > External Sector 

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Factual

Question Type – Current Affairs

Q5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds  (IIBs)”?

• Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
• IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
• The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
• Inflation-Indexed Bonds are financial instruments that attempt to protect the bonds’ purchasing power by tying interest and principal payments to an index of price changes.
• Statement 1 is correct: The government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBS as the government can influence rate of inflation through its policies and thus changing the underlying variables of IIBs. 
• Statement 2 is correct: Return on the IIBs are linked to the WPI, where interest rates are provided with protection against inflation by paying fixed coupon rate on the principle adjusted against inflation. This way investors are protected from uncertainty regarding inflation. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The bonds do not receive any special tax benefits. Income tax rates are applied on these bonds beyond the prescribed limit.

Economy > Public Finance and Fiscal Policy

Q6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
• The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanations: 

• Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 define e-commerce entity (also foreign owned) as any person who owns, operates or manages digital or electronic facility or platform for electronic commerce.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As it is clear from the above definition, an e-commerce entity does not include a seller offering its services or goods for sale on a marketplace. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2021, has specified that an e-commerce marketplace entity shall not sell any goods owned or controlled by it on such e-commerce marketplace platform. All the sellers on the platform shall only be third party sellers, and no e-commerce store can be run on the e-commerce marketplace platform. Hence e commerce platform cannot own big sellers on their platform.

Economy > Applied Economics 

Difficulty – Hard

Analysis – Factual and Conceptual

Question Type – Current Affair

Q7. Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy?

• Farmers harvesting their crops
• Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
• A commercial bank lending money to a trading company Rupee
• A corporate body issuing Denominated Bonds overseas

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

• General Government Sector: Influences the quantity of money in the economy through its operations.
• Real Sector: It is the economy’s money holding sector.
• Financial Sector: It is the economy’s money issuing sector
• The real sector of an economy is the key section as activities of this sector persuade economic output and is represented by those economic segments that are essential for the progress of GDP of the economy. Option (a) is correct:  Real Sector refers to real economic transactions of an economy.
• Non-financial corporations
• Financial corporations
• General government
• Rest of the world

Economy > Basics of Economics 

Difficulty – Easy

Q8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India ?

• An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
• A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
• An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
• A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
• Option (d) is correct: Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India. 
• The term has its origins in the Income Tax Amendment Act 2012 . This act introduced the concept of ‘retrospective taxation’ in the wake of a deal by Vodafone Ltd. in 2007 . As per the new amendment, Indirect Transfers were taxed. The amendments made by the 2012 Act clarified that if a company is registered or incorporated outside India, its shares will be deemed to be or have always been situated in India if they derive their value substantially from the assets located in India. As a result, the persons who sold such shares of foreign companies before the enactment of the Act (i.e., May 28, 2012) also became liable to pay tax on the income earned from such sale. 
• This policy of retrospective taxation dissuaded investors from investing in India. However, this provision was retracted in 2021 , hence the ‘retrospective taxation’ was nullified.

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Conceptual/Analytical

Question Type – Current Affairs/Static

Q9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
• Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

• Capital Expenditures (CapEx) are expenses used by a company to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment. For example, Costs to upgrade or purchase software, investing in new technology and computer equipment, are considered part of Capital Expenditure.
• Revenue Expenditures include the expenses required to meet the ongoing operational costs of running a business, and thus are essentially the same as Operating Expenses (OPEX) . It can be defined as the summation of all expenses incurred by a business through the course of production of its goods and services.
• Statement 1 is correct: Costs to upgrade or purchase software, investing in new technology and computer equipment, are considered part of Capital expenditure.
• Statement 2 is incorrect:  Both Debt Financing and Equity Financing are considered as part of capital receipts for the company, as capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. Funds from these would be used by the company for capital expenditure such as to grow or expand its operations .

Economy > Budget

Analysis – Conceptual 

Q10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

• A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
• Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a)  1 only

• Household Financial Savings refer to currency, bank deposits, debt securities, mutual funds, pension funds, insurance, and investments in small savings schemes by households. 
• Public Debt is classified into internal and external debt. Internal debt consists of marketable debt and non-marketable debt. Marketable debt comprises Government dated securities and Treasury Bills, issued through auctions .
• Statement 1 is correct: The net household financial savings was 11.5 percent of GNDI (gross national disposable income) in 202021. A part of this financial saving goes toward government borrowing . The government borrows from the market through various measures.
• Statement 2 is correct: As at end-March 2021, outstanding amounts under dated securities stood at 71.7 lakh crore (36.3 percent of GDP) and accounted for 68.1 per cent of the total Public Debt .

Q11. Consider the following statements :

• Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
• The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
• The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
• In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 only

• Statement 1 is correct: A committee under the chairmanship of H. N. Sanyal (Additional Solicitor General) was constituted in 1961 . The recommendations, which the committee made, took note of the importance given to freedom of speech in the Constitution and of the need for safeguarding the status and dignity of courts and interests of administration of justice. Pursuant of Sanyal Committee Report, the Contempt of Courts Act was passed in 1971 .
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 129 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to initiate contempt cases on its own, independent of the motion brought before it by the Attorney General (AG) or with the consent of the AG.  
• Statement 3 is incorrect:  The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.
• Statement 4 is correct: The Contempt of Court Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt. Hence the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws regarding contempt of court. 

Indian Indian Polity> Judiciary

Q12. With reference to India, consider the following statements :

• Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
• Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

  Answer: B

• Advocate means a lawyer whose name has been entered in the State roll prepared and maintained by a state bar council under Section 17 of the Advocates Local Act., 1961 (25 of 1961) and who is a member of a State Bar Association or State Advocates Association . Whereas a Lawyer is any person who has completed the Degree of Law (whether 3 years LLB or 5 years Law course)
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: 
• Legal firm is a group of association of Advocate and not an entity to be recognised as an Advocate.
• An advocate cannot be a full-time salaried employee of any government, person, firm, corporation or concern, during the reign of his practice. Hence, any person be it company lawyer or patent Attorney on pay-roll, will not be recognised as an Advocate.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.

Indian Polity > Judiciary

Q13. Consider the following statements :

• A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
• When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
• A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
• An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.  The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. 
• Statement 2 is correct: After the 24th Constitutional Amendment 1967 , the President does not have the power to withhold his assent to the bill or return it for reconsideration of the Parliament, if the bill seeks to amend the Constitution.
• Statement 3 is correct: Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting. Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses.

Indian Polity > Legislature

Q14. Consider the following statements :

• The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
• The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
• Article 74 of the Constitution deals with the status of the council of ministers while Article 75 deals with the appointment, tenure, responsibility, qualification, oath and salaries and allowances of the ministers.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not classify the members of the Council of Ministers into different ranks. It has been done informally on the British pattern through executive order in India. 
• Statement 2 is correct: But as per the 91 st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 , Strength Of Council Of Ministers should not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Q15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

• To ratify the declaration of Emergency
• To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
• To impeach the President of India

(a) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 352 (4) , it is the responsibility of the Parliament, not just Lok Sabha, to ratify proclamation of Emergency. 
• Statement 2 is correct: The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible before the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can cause the fall of the government by passing no confidence motion against the sitting government. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Article 61, process to remove the President, impeachment can be initiated by either house of the Parliament. Both houses are given equal powers in this regard. 

Q16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

• The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
• The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Anti-Defection Law a nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means a nominated member can join a political party within six months after being appointed in the house. 
• Statement 2 is correct: : The Anti Defection Law does not specify a time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Hence, there is no specific time limit.

Indian Polity > Miscellaneous

Q17. Consider the following statements:

• Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
• According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 76 of the Constitution only the Attorney General has the right to participate in the Parliamentary proceedings. This right is not extended to the Solicitor General of India.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Attorney General is not appointed by the Government. Instead, he is appointed by the President in consultation with the Government. However, traditionally, the Attorney General resigns from the office once the government resigns, as he is appointed on its advice. 

Indian Polity > Executive

Q18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

• Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
• Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
• Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

  Answer: D

• Mandamus (‘We command’) is one of five writs which are issued by courts in India (Supreme Court and High Courts). It is a command issued by the court to a public office/official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed to refuse to perform. 
• Quo Warranto (litt. ‘By what authority of warrant) is also one of five writs that are issued by courts in India. It is issued to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office (usually a constitutional or statutory office). This writ prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
• against a private individual or body.  
• to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force. 
• when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory to enforce a contractual obligation. 
• against the president of India or the state governors. 
• against the chief justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity.
• Statement 2 is correct:  As per UPSC official answer key this statement is correct.
• In India mandamus goes to all government departments and also local authorities like municipalities.”
•       Universities and other statutory bodies
•       Incorporated bodies like cooperative societies and joint stock companies.
•       Government companies.
•       Other private bodies on whom duties are imposed by statute.
• The High Courts have taken diametrically opposing views. For instance, a few High Courts on the one hand have thought that the writ could go even to a government company. but a few others have held on the other hand that the writ may not be issued to a statutory corporation like the Life Insurance Corporation. The position in relation to the above bodies is examined seriatim.
• Statement 3 is correct: The writ of Quo Warranto can only be issued in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character, that is created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Any interested person and not necessarily the aggrieved person can seek Quo Warranto writ.

Q19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

• Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
• As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
• It has seamless portability across the country.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Participation of healthcare institutions in Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission ( ABDM ) is voluntary . However, once a healthcare facility has registered with ABDM , every healthcare professional employed by that facility or institution must register himself/herself with Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem ( NDHE ).
• The mission has been conceptualised as a set of ‘ digital building blocks ’.
• Each building block is seen as a ‘digital public good’ that can be used by any entity in the digital health ecosystem and provides key capabilities that enable the ABDM vision.
• Statement 3 is correct: Creating seamless portability across various online platforms is one of the objectives of ABDM . 

Economy > Human Economy

Q20. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

• As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
• There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
• The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
• The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

• Article 93 provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker. The offices are regulated by constitutional provisions, Parliamentary Traditions and Conventions and Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business Rules.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place.
• The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker (date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Deputy Speaker being from the principal opposition party, is a parliamentary convention and not mandatory. There is no written rule for such an arrangement. 
• Statement 3 is correct: Deputy Speaker acts as the presiding officer in case of leave or in absence caused by death or illness of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. While performing his duties as the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker enjoys the same powers and privileges as the Speaker of Lok Sabha. 
• Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no such practice of needing the Prime Minister as a seconder while moving motion for Deputy Speaker.

Importance of Solving Previous Years’ Question Paper

• Candidates will better comprehend the present test format by resolving prelim question papers from prior years.
• Examining the topics that matter more in terms of the exam is beneficial.
• Candidates can assess the level of difficulty of the UPSC Exam paper, and it helps to keep track of changes to the format of the Prelims examination.
• The ability to analyze oneself, concentrate on one’s areas of weakness, and develop a strategy that works for one’s needs is the best benefit of solving IAS problems from the previous year.

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UPSC 2022 Question Paper FAQs

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Both the papers have negative markings. As per the UPSC Prelims Analysis, the overall level of the UPSC IAS Prelims questions paper was mixed as aspirants found economics questions to be tough while polity had direct questions.

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It was definitely tough and random than any year in recent years. good balance between current affairs and static portion.

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A total of 200 questions was asked in UPSC Prelims 2022

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In 2022, out of 11.52 lakhs candidates who applied for UPSC 2022, only 13090 cleared the Prelims exam.

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[Mission 2024] Current Affairs Quiz , 11 April 2024

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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1 . Question

Which of the following statements accurately describes the concept of total fertility rate (TFR)?

• (a) TFR represents the number of children born to an average woman over her lifetime, assuming current age-specific birth rates remain constant.
• (b) TFR is the number of children born per 1,000 women aged 15-49 in a given year.
• (c) TFR reflects the number of live births per 1,000 people in a population within a specific timeframe.
• (d) TFR measures the average age at which women in a population give birth to their first child.

Explanation:

• Context: India’s declining fertility rate, recently projected by The Lancet, suggests a demographic transition with potential economic benefits.
• The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is a measure used in demography to quantify the average number of children that would be born to a woman over her lifetime if she were to experience the exact current age-specific fertility rates through her childbearing years. Option A accurately describes this concept, highlighting that TFR is a projection based on current birth rates across different age groups of women. Option B describes the Crude Birth Rate, which is the number of live births per 1,000 people in a population within a specific timeframe. Option C describes the Birth Rate, which is different from TFR. Option D describes the concept of Mean Age at Childbearing, not TFR. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/indias-declining-fertility-rate-opportunities-and-challenges-ahead/

2 . Question

Which of the following statements regarding the process to become a member of the United Nations (UN) is correct?

• (a) A country can become a UN member solely through a majority vote in the General Assembly.
• (b) To become a UN member, a country must first submit an application to the Security Council, which then recommends admission to the General Assembly for a two-thirds majority vote.
• (c) Any country can automatically become a UN member upon expressing its desire to join, without requiring approval from existing member states.
• (d) Membership to the UN is restricted to countries that have been independent for at least 50 years and have demonstrated a commitment to peace and human rights.
• Context: The United Nations Security Council president has referred the Palestinian Authority’s application for full UN membership to the committee on new member admissions.
• The correct statement is B. The process to become a UN member involves several steps. Firstly, a country must submit an application to the Security Council, which then reviews the application and makes a recommendation to the General Assembly. The General Assembly then votes on the admission of the country, requiring a two-thirds majority for approval. This process ensures that the decision to admit a new member is made by the collective will of existing member states.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/palestinian-membership-application-referred-to-un-committee/

3 . Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).

• The primary responsibility of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is to maintain international peace and security.
• The council’s presidency rotates every month among the Five permanent members.
• The non-permanent members are elected for five-year terms.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three

Explanation: United Nations Security Council (UNSC):

• The Security Council was established by the UN Charter in 1945.
• It is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations.
• Its primary responsibility is to work to maintain international peace and security.
• The council is headquartered in New York.
• Five (5) permanent members
• Ten (10) non-permanent members elected for two-year terms
• Each year, the General Assembly elects five non-permanent members (out of ten in total) for a two-year term.
• The ten non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis.
• The council’s presidency is a capacity that rotates every month among its 15 members.
• Permanent members: United States, the Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom

4 . Question

What does the credit-deposit ratio measure in the banking sector?

• (a) The ratio of loans disbursed by a bank to its total assets.
• (b) The ratio of a bank's total deposits to its total liabilities.
• (c) The ratio of loans disbursed by a bank to its total deposits.
• (d) The ratio of a bank's profits to its shareholders' equity.
• Context: Banks in India are facing challenges in attracting deposits during the financial year 2023-24.
• It is calculated by dividing the total loans extended by the bank by its total deposits. The ratio indicates how much of a bank’s deposits are being used to provide loans.
• A higher credit-deposit ratio suggests that a larger portion of the deposits is being lent out as credit, while a lower ratio indicates that more deposits are being held in reserve or invested in other assets.
• It is an important measure of a bank’s liquidity and lending capacity.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/credit-deposit-ratio/

5 . Question

Consider following assertions pertain to the “Magnesium-Copper / Cupric Oxide Fuel Cell”:

• It utilizes hydrogen gas as the fuel source.
• It operates at low temperatures, making it suitable for portable applications.
• It releases carbon dioxide as a byproduct of the reaction.
• None of the statements given above are correct.
• Context: Researchers at the University of Kerala have developed an eco-friendly fuel cell that primarily utilizes air and seawater to generate power.
• The Magnesium-Copper / Cupric Oxide Fuel Cell is an eco-friendly technology developed to generate power primarily using air and seawater.
• This innovative fuel cell produces electricity and heat during operation while emitting water, making it environmentally clean.
• It employs cupric oxide grown over a copper substrate in a magnesium-sodium chloride-based system.
• Compared to traditional fuel cells, it offers cost-effectiveness by utilizing semiconductor material instead of platinum for air cathode systems.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/air-breathing-magnesium-copper-cupric-oxide-fuel-cell/

6 . Question

Consider the following fundamental particles:

How many of the above fundamental particles interact with the Higgs field to acquire mass?

• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
• Context: Peter Higgs, the physicist credited with theorizing the Higgs boson particle, has passed away at 94.
• Neutrinos and photons are the only elementary particles that don’t interact with the Higgs field. The process by which neutrinos acquire mass is different. It’s not known if neutrinos have a non-zero mass, it’s believed they are massless
• Elementary particles, including electrons, quarks and bosons, do interact and have a variety of masses. This mass-giving interaction with the Higgs field is known as the Brout-Englert-Higgs mechanism, proposed by theorists Robert Brout, François Englert and Peter Higgs.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/peter-higgs-higgs-theory/

7 . Question

Which of the following statements about subatomic particles is correct?

• (a) Neutrons have a positive charge and reside outside the nucleus.
• (b) Protons have a negative charge and are found within the nucleus.
• (c) Electrons have a negligible mass and orbit the nucleus in fixed paths.
• (d) Quarks are fundamental particles that make up protons and electrons.
• Option A: Neutrons are electrically neutral particles found within the nucleus of an atom. They do not possess a charge.
• Option B: Protons are positively charged particles found within the nucleus of an atom. They carry a charge opposite to electrons.
• Option C: Electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit the nucleus in specific energy levels, rather than fixed paths, according to the quantum mechanical model. They have a much smaller mass compared to protons and neutrons, hence their mass can be considered negligible.
• Option D: Quarks are indeed fundamental particles, but they are the building blocks of protons, neutrons, and other hadrons, not electrons . Electrons are considered elementary particles and are not composed of quarks.

8 . Question

Consider the following statements:

• C-Dome is an advanced missile defense system developed by China, while Iron Dome is a similar system developed by Israel.
• Iron Dome is a maritime variant of C-Dome, designed specifically for naval defense operations.
• C-Dome and Iron Dome are both air defense systems, with C-Dome being developed by Israel and Iron Dome by China.
• None of the above statements are correct.
• It was deployed for the first time as a response to a “hostile aircraft” entering Israeli airspace near Eilat.
• Similar to the Iron Dome, which intercepts rockets fired from Gaza, the C-Dome uses radar to detect incoming threats and destroys them with its own missiles.
• Unlike the Iron Dome, the C-Dome is mounted on ships and integrated into the ship’s radar It provides full-circular protection against maritime and coastal threats.
• The system was tested on Sa’ar 6-class corvettes, German-made warships used by the Israeli Navy, and was declared operational in November 2022.
• The C-Dome employs TAMIR interceptors, a modular Vertical-Launch Unit (VLU), and a Command & Control (C2) component to detect and track threats at sea.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/c-dome-defence-system/

9 . Question

Consider the following statements about the Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant:

• It is located in Russia and is one of the oldest nuclear facilities in the world.
• It is situated in Ukraine and ranks as the largest nuclear power plant in Europe.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Context: A drone attack damaged the Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant in Ukraine , with three hits on the main reactor containment.
• The International Atomic Energy Agency confirmed the damage but stated that nuclear safety remains intact.
• Zaporizhzhia, the largest nuclear plant in Europe , is located in southeast Ukraine, on the banks of the Dnipro or Dnieper River (which drains into the Black Sea). It is currently under the control of the Russian forces.
• The Zaporizhzhya Nuclear Power Plant in Ukraine faces several risks to its safety and operation. The plant has VVER-1000 reactors and incorporates safety enhancements implemented after the Chornobyl and Fukushima accidents.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/10/zaporizhzhia-nuclear-power-plant-ukraine/

10 . Question

Which of the following statements about the Dnieper River is correct?

• (a) The Dnieper River flows exclusively through Russia.
• (b) The Dnieper River is the longest river in Europe.
• (c) The Dnieper River originates in the Carpathian Mountains.
• (d) The Dnieper River empties into the Black Sea.
• The Dnieper rises at an elevation of about 720 feet (220 metres) in a small peat bog on the southern slope of the Valdai Hills of Russia , about 150 miles (240 km) west of Moscow, and flows in a generally southerly direction through western Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine to the Black Sea.
• While the Dnieper River is one of the longest rivers in Europe, it is not the longest. The Volga River holds the title of the longest river in Europe.

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