nursing question paper 2019

Nursing Test Bank and Nursing Practice Questions for Free

Are you looking for a reliable study resources to help you ace your nursing exams? Look no further than our nursing test banks! Our nursing test bank includes over 6,500 nursing practice questions covering a wide range of nursing topics from medical- surgical nursing to nursing pharmacology and more! These test banks are absolutely free and no registration is required!

Answer all of our mock exams to help you prepare and review for any nursing school exams (including NCLEX-RN and NCLEX-PN ). Studying from our nursing test banks can help you become familiar with the types of questions that you may encounter on your exams. These test banks are a helpful study resource for nursing students especially when used in conjunction with our other study materials .

Our goal is to provide aspiring nurses with free resources and help them become registered nurses. We hope our high-quality exam-style questions will help you boost your confidence and knowledge to ace your exams!

Table of Contents

What are nursing test banks, select all that apply, prioritization, delegation, and assignment, arterial blood gas (abg) analysis, safety and infection control nursing test banks, dosage calculations, iv flow rate calculations, fundamentals of nursing test bank, newborn nursing care & assessment, pediatric nursing, anatomy and physiology, musculoskeletal disorders, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, neurological disorders nursing test bank, gastrointestinal disorders, diabetes mellitus, urinary disorders, reproductive disorders, burns and burn injury management, homeostasis: fluids and electrolytes, cancer and oncology nursing, emergency nursing, eyes, ears, nose, and throat and sleep disorders, growth and development, therapeutic communication, leadership and management in nursing, nursing research nursing test bank, nclex-pn nursing test bank, test-taking strategies and tips, recommended resources.

Nursing test banks are a collection of questions and answers that are relevant to the nursing field. These questions are often used by nursing instructors as a basis for exams, and they can also be used by nursing students to study and prepare for their exams. Using a nursing test bank can greatly improve your chances of success on your nursing exams.

Quiz Guidelines

Before you start, here are some examination guidelines and reminders you must read:

• Practice Exams : Engage with our Practice Exams to hone your skills in a supportive, low-pressure environment. These exams provide immediate feedback and explanations, helping you grasp core concepts, identify improvement areas, and build confidence in your knowledge and abilities.
• You’re given 2 minutes per item.
• For Challenge Exams, click on the “Start Quiz” button to start the quiz.
• Complete the quiz : Ensure that you answer the entire quiz. Only after you’ve answered every item will the score and rationales be shown.
• Learn from the rationales : After each quiz, click on the “View Questions” button to understand the explanation for each answer.
• Free access : Guess what? Our test banks are 100% FREE. Skip the hassle – no sign-ups or registrations here. A sincere promise from Nurseslabs: we have not and won’t ever request your credit card details or personal info for our practice questions. We’re dedicated to keeping this service accessible and cost-free, especially for our amazing students and nurses. So, take the leap and elevate your career hassle-free!
• Share your thoughts : We’d love your feedback, scores, and questions! Please share them in the comments below.

NCLEX-RN Nursing Test Bank

Everything related to the NCLEX-RN ! These NCLEX-RN practice questions are great to simulate the actual exams from random nursing topics with varying difficulty. Includes 30 quizzes with 30 questions each. Are you ready for the challenge?

NEW UPDATE: Introducing Challenge Exams and Practice Exams

Engage with these new modes to enhance your learning journey, each tailored to meet different needs and propel you towards academic achievement.

• Dive into Practice Exam Mode for a supportive learning experience. Here, real-time feedback aids in understanding core concepts and building confidence. It’s your space for growth and preparation.
• Step up to Challenge Exam Mode to test your mastery. With rigorous questions, a leaderboard, and a timer, it’s designed to assess your readiness and foster a competitive spirit.

Test your mastery with these Challenge Exams :

Build your confidence and grasp core concepts with these Practice Exams :

Nursing test bank questions that will help you familiarize and tame the dreaded SATA questions of the NCLEX.

This nursing test bank includes four quizzes and 100 practice questions about prioritization, delegation, and assignment. These common NCLEX questions are challenging to answer, but you will ace them with enough practice using the questions below!

A special set of nursing school test bank questions dedicated to the interpretation of arterial blood gas. See also our arterial blood gas interpretation technique using the tic-tac-toe method .

According to the NCLEX-RN test plan, about 9 to 15% of questions will come from this subcategory that includes content about the “ nurse ‘s ability required to protect clients, families, and healthcare personnel from health and environmental hazards.

Nursing Pharmacology Test Banks

Updated nursing test bank questions related to nursing pharmacology and administration of medication. Includes comprehensive quiz about nursing pharmacology concepts and specialized exams about cardiovascular, psychiatric, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and endocrine drugs.

We have consolidated our practice questions for drug dosage calculations in this set, divided into four parts to test your skills in dosage calculations. In this nursing test bank, practice  dosage calculation  problems to measure your competence in nursing math.

Practice your calculation skills on intravenous flow rate with this nursing test bank set. Includes questions about intravenous flow rate calculations, intravenous medication dosage calculations.

Comprehensive nursing practice questions related to fundamentals of nursing and basic nursing concepts.

Maternity Nursing Test Banks

All questions in this nursing test bank are related to maternal and child health nursing, obstetric nursing, and maternity nursing.

This nursing test bank set covers topics related to nursing care of the newborn and assessment .

A new set of nursing test bank questions related to pediatric clients’ nursing care and disorders.

Medical-Surgical Nursing Test Bank

A large number of nursing test bank questions related to medical-surgical nursing.

New nursing test banks all about anatomy and physiology of the human body.

Our newest nursing test bank covering the nursing care of patients with musculoskeletal system disorders.

Newly updated nursing test bank questions about the nursing care of patients with cardiovascular system disorders. Topics include: care of patients with cardiovascular disorders such as: dysrhythmias, hypertension , coronary artery disease , heart failure , valvular diseases, myocardial infarction , and peripheral vascular diseases.

Nursing test bank questions related to care of patients with respiratory system disorders like the nursing care management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma , pneumonia , pleural effusion, and other respiratory system disorders.

Nursing test bank questions related to the nervous system. Question content of these nursing test banks includes nursing care management of patients with neurological disorders such as stroke , multiple sclerosis , seizures, traumatic brain injury , spinal cord injuries, and more.

Practice questions related to the gastrointestinal system and its disorders. Topics include care of patients with pancreatitis , ostomy care, inflammatory bowel disease, diverticulitis, liver failure, liver disorders, appendicitis , hiatal hernia , esophageal disorders, hepatitis , and more.

Endocrine Disorders

Nursing test bank questions related to endocrine system disorders.

Answer all the diabetes mellitus practice questions from our nursing test bank and test your competence in the nursing management of diabetes .

Practice questions about urinary system disorders.

Questions related to nursing care management of reproductive system disorders.

Integumentary Disorders

Practice questions related to integumentary system disorders.

All questions related to burn injury nursing care including a reviewer for the topic. In this nursing test bank, we’ll test your knowledge of  burn injury  nursing management concepts.

Updated nursing test bank questions related to fluids and electrolytes .

Nursing test bank and practice questions about cancer and oncology nursing.

Nursing test bank questions related to emergency nursing and triage.

Nursing test banks related to eyes, ears, nose, throat, and sleep disorders.

Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing Test Bank

Nursing test bank questions related to mental health and psychiatric nursing. Topics include concepts related to mental health and psychiatric nursing such as: psychiatric assessment and fundamentals of mental health and psychiatric nursing, care of patients with alzheimer’s disease, delirium , dementia , and more.

Questions related to the theories on growth and development (Erikson’s Theory of Psychosocial Development, Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development, etc.)

The best questions and nursing test bank set to help you answer Therapeutic Communication questions.

Practice questions related to nursing leadership and management:

If you are looking for practice questions about nursing research, look no further!

Our updated set of nursing test bank questions for NCLEX-PN !

Reviewing nursing concepts for your exam is just one part. You’ll need to learn how to answer the questions correctly too. Here are some test-taking tips :

• Nursing Exam Cram Sheet for NCLEX-RN
• 20 NCLEX Tips and Strategies Every Nursing Students Should Know
• My NCLEX Experience: Study Tips and Resources for Nursing Students
• 6 Easy Ways on How Nurses Can Master the Art of Delegation
• 8-Step Guide to ABG Analysis: Tic-Tac-Toe Method
• 5 Principles in Answering Therapeutic Communication Questions
• 12 Tips to Answer NCLEX Select All That Apply (SATA) Questions
• 10 Effective NCLEX Test Taking Strategies and Tips
• 10 Brilliant Tips to Overcome Test Anxiety
• 11 Test Taking Tips & Strategies For Nurses

Nursing test banks are an essential tool for any nursing student looking to excel on their exams. Nursing test banks are the key to success in advancing your nursing career, we hope this comprehensive guide have provided you all the information you need to excel.

Recommended books and resources for your NCLEX success:

Disclosure: Included below are affiliate links from Amazon at no additional cost from you. We may earn a small commission from your purchase. For more information, check out our privacy policy .

Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination is often referred to as the best nursing exam review book ever. More than 5,700 practice questions are available in the text. Detailed test-taking strategies are provided for each question, with hints for analyzing and uncovering the correct answer option.

Strategies for Student Success on the Next Generation NCLEX® (NGN) Test Items Next Generation NCLEX®-style practice questions of all types are illustrated through stand-alone case studies and unfolding case studies. NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (NCJMM) is included throughout with case scenarios that integrate the six clinical judgment cognitive skills.

Saunders Q & A Review for the NCLEX-RN® Examination This edition contains over 6,000 practice questions with each question containing a test-taking strategy and justifications for correct and incorrect answers to enhance review. Questions are organized according to the most recent NCLEX-RN test blueprint Client Needs and Integrated Processes. Questions are written at higher cognitive levels (applying, analyzing, synthesizing, evaluating, and creating) than those on the test itself.

NCLEX-RN Prep Plus by Kaplan The NCLEX-RN Prep Plus from Kaplan employs expert critical thinking techniques and targeted sample questions. This edition identifies seven types of NGN questions and explains in detail how to approach and answer each type. In addition, it provides 10 critical thinking pathways for analyzing exam questions.

Illustrated Study Guide for the NCLEX-RN® Exam The 10th edition of the Illustrated Study Guide for the NCLEX-RN Exam, 10th Edition. This study guide gives you a robust, visual, less-intimidating way to remember key facts. 2,500 review questions are now included on the Evolve companion website. 25 additional illustrations and mnemonics make the book more appealing than ever.

NCLEX RN Examination Prep Flashcards (2023 Edition) NCLEX RN Exam Review FlashCards Study Guide with Practice Test Questions [Full-Color Cards] from Test Prep Books. These flashcards are ready for use, allowing you to begin studying immediately. Each flash card is color-coded for easy subject identification.

73 thoughts on “Nursing Test Bank and Nursing Practice Questions for Free”

Mr Vera you are super awesome. What others are using to make money, you are providing for free. You are giving your time and energy free but for a good cause. And I can assure you that you will be rewarded in one way or another. Thanks for all you do.

Thank you for your kind words, John.

Thank you, so much bodie !!!!!

I was wondering whenever you have time, could you update with questions for med surg musculoskeletal. There isn’t any practice questions on your page and I along with other nursing students would appreciate it. Thank you!

Hi Tiara, please check out Musculoskeletal Disorders NCLEX Practice Quiz (70 Questions)

Can you please do the necessary things urgently… since yesterday when u update regarding nursing test bank , when I click the quiz button it’s not uopening..I m studying for exams

It’s working on our end and I’ve checked with several browsers. Could you please clear your browser cache and try again? Thank you!

Hi, I’m looking at the Misc Nursing Test Banks (specifically wanted to study eye and ear) and the links for those do not work (just reloads the page). Everything else I clicked on appeared to work, but not the 3 under that heading. This is a great resource regardless! Thank you so much for taking the time to make this :)

Sorry, but those set of nursing test bank questions were being updated during that time. You can find the updated version of that article here: EENT and Sleep Disorders Nursing Test Bank

HI, Thank you so much for a great website. Kindly, can you please provide questions on medical surgical musculoskeletal disorders?

Hi Dorsa, please check out Musculoskeletal Disorders NCLEX Practice Quiz (70 Questions)

I wish I would have known about Nurseslabs sooner! (senior nursing student here) This is an amazing resource. Thank you for putting this FREE website together Matt!!

you guys are the best , for the people are behind this great free website , YOU GUYS ARE ANGELS AND SO BEAUTIFUL PEOPLE THANK YOU SOO MUCH <3

I’m wanting immunity and hematologic questions to review but not sure….what to look under. Normally these are separate categories and I can’t find any listed here. Cardio doesn’t seem to have hematology listed under it…I’m lost. Help!

Hi Lori, check out Hematologic Disorders and Anemia NCLEX Practice Exam #2 it’s under the cardio quiz part 2. For the rest of the quizzes, please visit Nursing Test Bank and Nursing Practice Questions for Free .

Hi , Iam looking for infection, inflammation and immunity where do I find it?

Helloo Matt Vera, Thank you so much for being here for Us (Nurses). I was wondering if you can also upload Questions on Musculoskeletal Disorders, we need them also. Thanks!

Hello Matt, Please I’m studying Liver problems, Cholecystectomy, and Pancreas please can you upload practices questions on these topics? Thank you so much for all your help. Best regards.

Hi Bell, they’re under the Gastrointestinal Disorders nursing test bank . Hope this helps!

Hi Matt Thank you so much. You are a blessing.

These questions are very informative and help breakdown why each answer choice is either correct or incorrect. Thank you for adding more information on that. The best part is that it is free and its a great adjunct to nursing school and other NCLEX study materials

Glad to be of help! :)

Hi Nurseslabs, your practice questions helped a lot on preparing me for my NCLEX retake. I have passed and weirdly enough, I have encountered questions which were actually in here during my successful exam. Thanks soooo much. :)

Thank you so much, this is amazing, I have got an eye opener, I was almost giving up in my career of Nursing but you have renewed my energy, by providing a more simplified approach to various issues be blessed Vera

I’m so happy this website is still active, and now many are using it. I used this back in 2013 for my NCLEX. Now I’m back again for my NCLEX. Everything we need is here. I wonder why it’s still for free, most review sites will charge you for this, and this is even better

Hi, would you be having test questions for A & P 1 or could you direct me to a website that has A & P questions. Otherwise, this is a great website and I can wait to use it after I’m done with my prerequisites

Check out the study guide and quizzes on Anatomy and Physiology here .

This is really an amazing thing that you are doing. I come to this website for study but just realized last week that it actually has some practice questions which I did and it was so helpful in my recent test. Thank you so much, I will spread the word because it is FREE!

Thanks so much! :)

Good website, but please do you have any questions for nursing theory?

Hi Agnes, Sorry, we don’t have practice questions related to nursing theory. The closest quiz we have is related to nursing research: https://nurseslabs.com/nursing-research-nclex-nursing-test-bank-questions/ We hope this helps!

I thank God for the developer of this website. I used it from the moment I discovered it in January 2022 for two months until I was scheduled to take my NLCEX-PN on 3/02/22. Study with this free online tool paid off. I passed my test and was awarded my license today. I tell everyone I know who is scheduled to take their NCLEX to stop wasting their money on sites that don’t deliver and go to Nurseslabs.com. It was the best choice I made and hope other will too.

Thanks to whoever came up with this platform. It’s really helping. Humbled Almighty God bless you all

I am looking for topics in pathophysiology, where do I find that ?

Hi Kelsey, there is no specific quiz about pathophysiology but you can try our NCLEX-RN practice questions. You can also visit our Nursing Notes & Study Guides section for a pathophysiology guide and nursing management.

I love everything

I thank you for your help good job, god bless you

I am a Registered ICU Clinical Nurse in the USA, but this Nurseslabs page and content, allowed me to PASS my NMC Licensure exams in the UK, thank you kindly Matt Vera and his Team. ]

Hi, Matt. I appreciate you for making this and for giving it out for FREE. Unbelievable! Planning to use this material for my NCLEX for the 2nd time. I failed the 1st one. I purchased a lot of reviewers and paid huge fees. Hope this one will work for me.

The fact that this site really does this for students who can’t afford these expensive nursing resources is amazing. I’ve used this throughout nursing school. I wish there was a donate button, but they truly deserve people to donate to them.

Thanks for your support to medical students. You are really amazing guys. Love from India

Thank you very much Mr Vera, God bless you for your great contribution to the nursing community.

Thanks so much for your great contribution to the nursing community

Can you please update the musculoskeletal med surge quiz

Hi Caleb, please check out Musculoskeletal Disorders NCLEX Practice Quiz (70 Questions)

Thank you for helping us pass the hour test without the headache.

The app is so amazing and impressive

Hello, I see the feature during practice exams to review the question and rationale per question has been removed. Is this a permanent change? It was very useful when doing these exams with students to be able to get real-time feedback and for them to understand right and wrong.

Hello Reed, Thank you for your feedback. We made the change since the previous setup was overloading our servers and causing downtimes. Rest assured that the answers and rationales will still show after the whole quiz is completed. We’re actively exploring ways to reintroduce or offer an alternative to the feature. Apologies for the inconvenience, and we appreciate your understanding. May I know which quizzes are you using?

Good day,pls update about the nursing reaearch.l hope it can help me alot.thank u in advance for sharing ur bank test😄😄😄

Appreciate the efforts, dedication & passion you have to enable us to succeed. Would prefer to have the answers along or at the end of the test so that we can come to a conclusion as to the score & the knowledge in a particular area.

Hello, where can i go to practice exam on this site? I cannot see the link anymore what I only see are table of contents. Thanl you!

Thank you so much Matt for the good work you do. Really appreciate. I noticed there are no quiz or note on Community Health Nursing. Please can you help with that?

Hi Kolade, you’re right. We do have one but it’s super outdated. Will note your suggestion for a CHN quiz. In the meantime, please visit our NCLEX-RN test banks since those have questions related to CHN. Thank you!

Love this site and it has been so helpful with school, but now that we have to complete an entire quiz is not helpful in studying. Our modules are sometimes all over the place and its difficult to get through multiple 25-75 question quizzes. the real-time feedback was an amazing feature and unfortunately i won’t be using nurselabs as much with the change.

Hello C Green, Sorry for the inconvenience. We’ve made temporary changes from the previous setup since it was overloading our servers leading to frequent downtimes. As of this writing, we’re rolling out new exam modes for some of our test banks: Challenge Exam Mode and Practice Exam Mode.

Practice Exam Mode is your go-to for building confidence and getting cozy with the core concepts, thanks to real-time feedback during the exam. On the flip side, Challenge Exam Mode is here to put your mastery to the test with a robust question set to assess your understanding, get you prepped for real-deal exams, and see where you stand. And oh, now there’s a leaderboard and timer to spice up the challenge even more!

Do you by any chance cover reviews for dialysis nurse certification as it is getting confusing looking for one. Thanks.

Hi Alex, check out the quizzes under Urinary Disorders Nursing Test Bank here . Under Quiz #4, we cover questions related to dialysis.

I am totally Agree with you This is very informative Thanks for posting this useful information.

I’m glad to hear that you found the information informative and useful!

Hi No question bank for Behavioral psychology???

Check out the questions related to Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing. We don’t have a specific quiz about it, sorry!

Dear Nurseslabs.com

You are helping so many budding nurses. Thank you so much.

Sincerely Tricia

Thanks so much Tricia for your kind words! It’s really heartwarming to hear that we’re making a difference for budding nurses like you. If there’s anything specific you need help with or if you have suggestions for what you’d like to see more of, don’t hesitate to let us know. We’re here to support you on your nursing journey!

Desde Puerto Rico, Muchas Gracias!! Gracias por tan gran gesto, lleno de empatía. Gracias por crear una plataforma como esta, sin cargo económico, gracias por el espacio y la oportunidad de permitir que usemos la plataforma de forma abierta. Actualmente la utilizo en preparación para tomar Nclex-RN. Dios los bendiga mucho y les multiplique todo lo que hacen con el corazón. ********************************************************************************************* From Puerto Rico, Thank you very much!! Thank you for such a great gesture, full of empathy. Thank you for creating a platform like this, without financial burden, thank you for the space and the opportunity to allow the use of the platform in an open way. I am currently using it in preparation for taking Nclex-RN. May God bless you very much and multiply everything you do with your heart.

Hi Yazmin, Thank you so much for your heartfelt message all the way from Puerto Rico! It’s incredibly rewarding to hear that Nurseslabs is assisting you in your preparation for the NCLEX-RN. We’re passionate about providing accessible, high-quality resources to support aspiring nurses like you, especially without the financial burden.

Your kind words and blessings mean a lot to us. It’s feedback like yours that fuels our commitment to continue creating and sharing valuable content.

Best of luck with your NCLEX-RN preparation – I’m confident you’re going to do great! Remember, we’re here to support you every step of the way. May God bless you too in all your endeavors.

If you need any more resources or have questions as you prepare, don’t hesitate to reach out.

Do you have any test banks relating to the topic of upper and lower gastrointestinal problems

Hi Laura, Absolutely! For test banks specifically on upper and lower gastrointestinal problems, please check out our Gastrointestinal System Nursing Test Banks . They should provide a good range of questions covering various aspects of GI disorders. If you need anything more specific or have other topics in mind, just let me know. Happy to help you find what you need!

Hi do you have a NGN Questions and a NCLEX computerized style of answering?

My exam is next week. I just found out about this website. Which will help me most practicing “comprehensive exams or subject exams”? or just the challenging exams? Thank you for making this. God bless!

An ad between each answer choice? This is wild. I understand the use and need for ads, but the placement is terrible.

Hi Diana, I’m really sorry about that. The ad placement you mentioned was indeed a mistake with our latest update from the ad provider. We totally get how frustrating that must have been, and we’ve since fixed the issue to ensure a smoother and more user-friendly experience.

Thanks so much for bringing this to our attention. We’re always aiming to improve, and feedback like yours is invaluable in that process. If you notice anything else that seems off or have further suggestions, please don’t hesitate to let us know.

Again, our apologies for the inconvenience, and thank you for your understanding.

I need my certificates please i was study COURSE for nursing in caregiver please assist me.

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• Tuesday, April 2, 2024
• nursing quiz

100 Important Nursing Exam Questions and Answers

Table of Contents

1. Thin superficial compact layer of decidua’s covering the blastocyst is called as? A. Decidua basalis B. Decidua capsularis C. Decidua parietalis D. Decidua Vera 2. the First case of Covid positive case in India reported in? A. Kerala B. Tamilnadu C. Gujarat D. Maharashtra 3. The epithelial tissue which is found in the uterine tubes is? A. Squamous B. Ciliated C. Columnar D. simple

4. The part of the fetus which occupies the lower pole of the uterus is called? A. Lie B. Presentation C. Denominator D. Position 5. Low levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein levels are found in A. Open neural tube defect B. Down syndrome C. Multiple pregnancies D. Rh-isoimmunisation 6. Passive movement of the head due to untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation is called? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Restitution D. Descent 7. Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage A. Bleeding disorders B. Abruptio placenta C. Placenta previa D. Atonic uterus 8. The type of abnormality where the umbilical cord is attached to membranes is called? A. Battledore placenta B. Velamentous placenta C. Circumvallate placenta D. Placenta marginata 9. The total lung capacity in a healthy adult male is approximate? A. 500 mL B. 5000 mL C. 6000 mL D. 6000 L 10. The ideal roller bandage application for body parts where the thickness varies, such as over the forearm, is? A. Simple spiral B. Figure of eight C. Reverse spiral D. Divergent Spica 11. The external rotation of the hip in the supine position, is prevented by using? A. Bed cradle B. Bedboard C. Trochanter roll D. Knee rest 12. In postural drainage ‘supine in Trendelenburg’s position is given to drain secretions from? A. Anterior segment of both lower lobes of lungs B. Posterior segment of both lower lobes of lungs C. Lateral segment of the left lower lobe D. Lateral segment of right lower lobe 13. A simple and cost-effective method for reducing the risk of hypostatic pneumonia in a bedridden patient is? A. Antibiotics B. Nebulization C. Frequent change of positions D. Humidified oxygen 14. When transporting a patient with intercostal drainage (ICD) tubes the nurse should be aware that? A. Clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system below the chest B. Clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system on the trolley C. Do not clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system below the chest D. Do not clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system on the trolley 15. Which among the following is an example of an isotonic intravenous solution? A. Dextrose normal saline B. 10% Dextrose C. 0.45% NaCl D. Ringer’s Lactate 16. WHO declared the 2019-novel Coronavirus outbreak as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) on? A. January 30, 2020 B. January 13, 2020 C. January 23, 2020 D. January 27, 2020 17. First death due to COVID was reported in which district in Kerala? A. Kasaragod B. Ernakulam C. Trivandrum D. Malappuram 18. In Hildegard Peplau’s Interpersonal Relations Model, the focus is on which of the following? A. Individual B. Community C. Larger society D. Family 19. Which of the following cells of the body are in almost constant mitosis? A. Nerve cells B. Stomach cells C. Muscle cells D. Renal cells 20. In which of the following clients is a rectal temperature most usually contraindicated? A. Client who has had a myocardial infarction B. Client with Parkinson’s disease C. Client who is prone to seizures D. Client with neuropathology associated with diabetes

Nursing Exam Questions and Answers

21. Which of the following people have the largest percentage of water in their bodies? A. Fat men B. Lean men C. Lean women D. Fat women 22. A complete set of chromosomes containing all the genetic information of an individual is called? A. Their genome B. Their genotype C. Their autosome D. Their sequence 23. The location of a specific gene on a chromosome is called? A. The gene position B. The gene location C. The gene pocus D. The gene locus 24. Brownish black pigmented area in the midline of the abdomen of a pregnant woman extending from xiphisternum to symphysis pubis? A. Striae gravidarum B. Chloasma gravidarum C. Linea alba D. Linea nigra 25. In meiosis, how many daughter cells are produced? A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2 26. Which hormone, produced by the ovaries, inhibits the secretion of FSH and LH? A. Progesterone B. Estrogen C. Inhibin D. GnRH 27. The acrosome of sperm contains? A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomal enzymes C. Nuclear material D. All of the above 28. Which blood group can be transfused into an O Rh− patient? A. Rh− B. Rh+ C. AB Rh+ D. AB Rh− 29. What is the first line of defense in any immune response? A. Anatomical, mechanical and chemical barriers B. B- and T-lymphocytes C. Antibodies D. Macrophages 30. Creatinine is a metabolic waste product excreted in urine and derived from? A. Liver B. Muscle C. Bone D. Skin

Nursing Questions NCLEX

31. Through which arteriole does blood exit the glomerular capsule? A. Afferent B. Efferent C. Renal D. Interlobular 32. The group of modified cells lying adjacent to the afferent and efferent arterioles is called? A. The renal corpuscle B. The juxtaglomerular apparatus C. The peritubular network D. The vasa recta 33. The mucosa of the large intestine produces ………….secretions? A. Alkaline B. Acidic C. Neutral D. Both alkaline and acidic 34. In the body, the liver is described as? A. The heaviest and largest organ B. The heaviest and second-largest organ C. The largest and second heaviest organ D. The second largest and second heaviest organ 35. Intrinsic factor is produced by which cells within the stomach? A. Mucous cells B. Chief cells C. Enteroendocrine cells D. Parietal cells 36. The enzyme pepsin digests which dietary component? A. Protein B. Fat C. Carbohydrate D. Vitamins

37. The primary phase in the regulation of gastric secretion and motility is called? A. The swallowing phase B. The gastric phase C. The cephalic phase D. The intestinal phase 38. The exchange of gases between alveoli and their surrounding capillaries is called …….respiration. A. External B. Internal C. Intrinsic D. Both external and internal 39. The wandering phagocytes found in the alveoli are called? A. Alveolar macrophages B. Pulmonary cells C. Goblet cells D. Chalice cells 40. The pharynx is divided into how many sub-divisions? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

41. The two main factors for determining blood pressure are peripheral resistance and……….. A. Cardiac output B. Age C. Pulse pressure. D. Pulse deficit 42. Which of the following is an example of a peptide hormone? A. Aldosterone B. Serotonin C. Gastrin D. Prostaglandins 43. Which hormone acts on the intestines and causes increased calcium absorption? A. Calcitonin B. Calcitriol C. Thyroxine D. Pancreatic polypeptide 44. Melatonin is secreted by? A. The pancreas B. The pineal gland C. The keratinocytes of the skin D. The ovaries 45. Receptors are found all over the body and make us aware of the position and movement of the body in relation to its surrounding environment and body parts in relation to each other? A. Proprioceptors B. Retroceptors C. Sensory receptors D. Neural receptors 46. Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into how many lobes? • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 47. Which of the following substances is not present in sweat? • Urea • Calcium • lactic acid • water urine and feces. 48. The dermis contains which of the following? • blood vessels • sweat glands • sensory nerve endings • sebaceous glands 49. For active management of the third stage of labor the nurse should administer? • Oxytocin 10 units within 1 minute • Oxytocin 10 units within 5 minutes • Oxytocin 5 units within 1 minute • Oxytocin 5 units within 5 minutes

50. In the human body, enzyme activity is most efficient at? • 0°C • 37°C • 42°C • 60°C 51. Cellular respiration is defined as: • an intracellular, energy-producing process • an extracellular, energy-producing process • an intracellular, energy-requiring process • an extracellular, energy-requiring process Cellular 52. What does AVPU stand for? • Alert, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive • Awake, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive • Alive, Voice, Pinch, Unresponsive • Asleep, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive 53. Which of the following is a mental health nursing model? • King • Neumann • Casey • Peplau 54. Sources of literature include _______? • books • internet • journals • all of these 55. What type of questioning might be used in a patient assessment? • open and closed • open and shut • exposed and closed • out and in 56. Non-verbal communication makes up __ of all communication? • 50% • 65% • 85% • 100% 57. The cognitive-developmental approach examines __.? • the reasons for the onset of depression • intelligent behavior in children • professional socialization • onset of dementia 58. Method of teaching in which an excursion to the patient’s area is arranged to provide a learning experience to the students is • Case presentation • Nursing rounds • Morning report • Process recording

59. The most abundant tissue in the human body is? • Epithelial • Connective • Muscle • Nervous 60. In following which substance is not transported across the cell membrane by simple diffusion? • Fatty acids • Oxygen • Glucose • Steroids

61. Who is the director of health services, Kerala? • Mrs. K K Shailaja • Dr. Sarita R L • Dr. Ravi R Menon • Dr. Zerena Begum 62. Which year is declared as the Year of Nurses and midwives by WHO? • 2021 • 2020 • 2019 • 2018

63. The heart is developed from which embryonic structure? • Paraxial mesoderm • Intermediate mesoderm • Splanchnopleuric intraembryonic mesoderm • Somatopleuric intraembryonic mesoderm 64. Medulla oblongata is also called? • Prosencephalon • Myelencephalon • Mesencephalon • Metencephalon 65. Posterior cerebral artery is a branch of which of these? • Vertebral artery • Basilar artery • Posterior cerebral artery • Posterior choroidal artery

66. In nursing services administration, who is responsible inventory control at lower managerial level? • Staff nurse • Assistant Nursing Superintendent • Nursing Superintendent • Head nurse

67. Which of the following is not a clinical method of teaching? • Case methods/case study • Nursing rounds and reports • Process recording • Seminar

68. Quality assurance is concerned with? • Adequacy of care • Practice ratings • Standard of practice • Organizational practice

69. Who has given 14 principles of management? • Daniel fraud • Henry Fayol • Mary Follet • Taylor

70. Which of the following is an autocratic method of teaching? • Lecture • Tutorial • Demonstration • Independent study

71. The department that is responsible for maintaining copies of all records related to patients? • Information System Department • Medical Record Department • Nursing Information system department • Department of Hospital Information System

72. Standard deviation is a measure of? • Chance • Central tendency • Deviation from a mean value • None

73. Right to Information Act came into existence in which year? • 1985 • 2001 • 1999 • 2005

74. Which of the following is not required in the consent form? • Address of researcher • Name of researcher • Phone no. of the researcher • Income of the researcher

75. The variable that is manipulated in an experiment • Independent variable • Criteria variable • Dependent variable • Controller variable

76. Which of the following would not be in a research proposal? • Budget • Methods • Time frame • Results

77. Teaching method in which students learn to do critical thinking through discussion and interaction and develop higher analytical cognitive skills is? • Seminar • Panel discussion. • Symposium • Lecture

78. Deformity of……………bone resulting in Sprengel’s shoulder? • Scapula • Radius • Ulna • Tibia

79. For assessing the gestational age of a preterm infant the nurse should use…………? • Palmar creases • Reflex stability • Breast bud size • Head to toe length

80. Invertogram is used for the diagnosis of? • Anorectal malformations • Tracheoesophageal fistula • Cleft lip and palate • Hirschsprung disease

81. ADHD is usually treated with? • Lorazepam • Methylphenidate • Haloperidol • Methocarbamol

82. The type of delusion commonly seen in depression is/are? • Delusion of poverty • Delusion of Nihilism • Delusion of persecution • All the above

83. The priority nursing intervention for a client who is admitted with paranoid schizophrenia is? • Establish a structured daily routine • Plan a program of self-fulfillment. • Provide patient and others with a safe environment • Do a mini-mental status examination

84. The part of the mind that distinguishes right from wrong and acts as a censor of behavior is known as? • Ego • Libido • Id • Superego

85. An alcoholic client experiencing burning and tingling sensations of the feet. It is suggestive of • Peripheral neuropathy • Wernicke’s encephalopathy • Korkoff’s psychosis • Seizure

86. The denominator used to calculate the literacy rate of the Indian population is: • Population aged 18 years or more • Population aged 7 years or more • School going population • Total mid-year population

87. Limit for registration of birth is? • 7 days • 21 days • 14 days • All of the above

88. Which one of the following is NOT a socio-economic indicator? • Literacy rate • Housing • Family size • Life expectancy at birth

89. Smallpox vaccine was invented by? • Louis Pasteur • Paul Eugene • Edward Jenner • John Snow

90. Scotch tape swab is used to identify? • Tapeworm • Anquilostoma • Pinworm • Cryptosporidium

91. Amoebiasis is transmitted through? • Feco-oral • Vector-borne • Parenteral • Airborne

92. Maximum amount of vitamin D is found in which among the following? • Liver • Cheese • Egg yolk • Cod liver oil

93. Phosphatase test is used for? • To test the presence of nitric acid • To determine the type of methemoglobinemia, a blood disorder. • Test for the efficacy of pasteurization of milk • None of the above

94. 3D’s (diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis) are the characteristic of which deficiency disorder? • Thiamine • Biotin • Niacin • Riboflavin

95. Which of the following antitubercular drugs causes red-orange discoloration of urine? • Isoniazid • Streptomycin • Ethambutol • Rifampicin

96. Which of the following type of insulin is prescribed for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis? • Long-acting insulin • Lente insulin • Human Regular insulin • Human NPH insulin

97. Imipramine is an antidepressant of which group? • Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) • Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) • Non-selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

98. The priority nursing diagnosis for the client with a tracheostomy is? • Pain related to tracheostomy • Impaired verbal communication related to tracheostomy procedure • Ineffective airway clearance related to increased tracheobronchial secretions • Risk for impaired skin integrity related to tracheostomy incision

99. Absence of bowel sounds and abdominal distention after abdominal surgery indicates? • Hemorrhage • Intussusception • Paralytic ileus • Flatulence

100. Unwanted but unavoidable pharmacodynamics effects of a drug at the therapeutic dose is known as? • Hypersensitivity • Side effects • Toxic effects • Idiosyncrasy

101. Parkinson’s disease is caused by the deficiency of which of the following neurotransmitters? • Acetylcholine • Dopamine • GABA • Serotonin

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1. A patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is admitted to ICU. All of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient, except:

a. Fluid volume excess b. Decreased RBC c. Electrolyte imbalance d. Impaired immune function

2. Which of the following blood pressure reading of a child aged between 3 and 5 years is considered abnormal? a. 96/42 mm Hg b. 105/60 mm Hg c. 112/65 mm Hg d. 115/66 mm Hg

3. A 70-year-old female patient is scheduled for surgery in two hours. Which of the following laboratory findings warrant the most immediate notification of the physician?

a. Prothrombin time 22 seconds b. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL c. Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL d. Potassium 4.6 mEq/dL

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a vaginal cream to her assigned patient with the help of an applicator. Which among the following instructions the nurse would tell the patient for proper use of vaginal cream at home? a. Make sure to empty the bladder before receiving this drug b. Remain lying down for 10 minutes after taking this drug c. Insert applicator approximately 5 to 7.5 cm d. All of the above

5. A nurse inspects a two-day-old intravenous site and identifies erythema, warmth, and mild edem a. The client reports tenderness when the area is palpate d. What should the nurse do first? a. Irrigate the IV tubing b. Discontinue the infusion c. Slow the rate of the infusion d. Obtain a prescription for an analgesic

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RUHS B.Sc. Nursing Previous Year Question Papers With Solutions PDF – Download Here

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RUHS B.Sc. Nursing Question Paper 2024 pattern will be conducted in two languages English and Hindi. The Entrance Examination will be of 100 marks for 100 Multiple Choice Questions including the subjects of Physics for 33, Chemistry for 33 and Biology for 34. The time duration will be 120 minutes / 2 hours. To understand in details have a look on the table below.

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There are 3 subjects Physics, Chemistry and Biology for the RUHS B.Sc. Nursing Entrance Examination.

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RUHS B.Sc. Nursing Question Papers 2024 will be conducted in 2 languages that are English and Hindi.

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DSSSB Nursing Exam Official Previous Years (Past) Papers All Sets|Shifts|Slots|Days (Free/Without Login PDF Download) from 2011-2023

• DSSSB Nursing Officer Previous Year Paper Held on 27th August 2019 Shift III: Part 1 to 4
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• DSSSB Nursing Officer Previous Year Paper Held on 29th August 2019 Shift III: Part 1 to 4

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Esic staff nurse question paper 2019 pdf download

esic staff nurse question paper 2019 Quiz

You'll have 60 second to answer each question., quiz result, total questions:, percentage:, esic staff nurse question paper 2019   ( shift ist).

1. The type of hypersensitivity reaction due to IgE-mediated histamine release is called:

b. Type 1 

d. Type 3 

right answer-B

2. In a normal average infant, the percentage increase in body length, then that at birth and at the age of 1 year is: 

b. 10% 

d. 75% 

right answer-C

3. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by:

a. Impaired cerebral circulation 

b. Deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine 

C. Deterioration of the spinal column

d. Progressive demyelination in the CNS 

right answer-D

4. Neuroleptic drugs are also known as: 

a. Hypnotics

b. Antiepileptics 

C. Antipsychotics

d. Antidepressants 

5. The advantage of using a three-part diagnostic statement such as the problem-etiology-sign/symptoms (PES) format is: 

a. It improves communication between physician and nurse 

b. It helps the nurse in delegating 

c. It standardizes organization of client data

d. It decreases the cost of healthcare 

6. In the diagnostic statement "Excess fluid volume related to decreased venous return as manifested by lower extremity edema (Swelling) the etiology of the problem is: 

a. Idiopathic

b. Edema 

C. Excess fluid volume d. 

Decreased venous return 

7. Introduction of solid foods along with breast feeding is called: 

a. Scheduled feeding 

b. Complementary feeding

c. Conditional feeding 

d. Demand feeding 

right answer -B

8. Voluntary rejection of unacceptable thoughts or feelings

conscious awareness is called: 

a. Suppression

b. Substitution 

c. Sublimation

d. Symbolization 

right answer-A

9. The professional value of nursing that describes the right to

self-determination is called: 

a. Altruism

b. Dignity 

c. Integrity

d. Autonomy 

10. Which of the below is a mortality indicator?

a. Disability rate 

b. Crude death rate 

C. Incidence rate

d. Prevalence rate 

11. The term MRSA in bacteriology stands for:

a. Multidrug resistant Staphylococcus aureus 

b. Methicillin Resistant Streptococcus anginosus 

c. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus 

d. Methicillin Reactive Staphylococcus aureus

right answer -C

12. The dimension of health concerned with proper biological functioning is called: 

a. Physical dimension 

b. Mental dimension

c. Spiritual dimension 

d. Social dimension 

13. A scale that cannot be used to assess a subject for a mood

disorder is: 

a. Wakefield questionnaire 

b. Hamilton rating scale

C. Beck inventory 

d. Edinburgh inventory 

14. Fine downy hair, normally found abundantly in premature babies, is called: 

b. Nevi 

d. Vernix 

15. Which of the below DOES NOT help in controlling hazards in a school setting? 

a. Food supply to the students should be safe 

b. The school should be built near from the source of noise 

c. The school should be well-ventilated

d. Health education should be included in the curriculum 

16. Lactational amenorrhea acts as a contraceptive method by:

a. Preventing sperm entry 

b. Spermicidal action

c. Preventing implantation 

d. Preventing ovulation 

17. The anterior fontanel close by: 

b. 2 Months of age 

C. 2-3 year of age

d. 9 to 18 months of age 

18. Positive Brudzinski's and Kernig's signs are indicative of: 

a. Hemiplegia

b. Peripheral neuropathy 

c. Meningitis

d. Alcohol intoxication 

19. Which of the below is a confirmed indication of pregnancy?

a. Amenorrhea 

b. Fetal heart in ultra-sonogram 

c. Beta HCG in urine

d. Nausea and vomiting 

20. Among the following the bone that belongs to the axial

skeleton is: 

b. Patella 

d. Tarsals 

21. An example of positive feedback mechanism in our body is:

a. Baroreceptor mechanism 

b. Temperature regulation 

c. Regulation of thyroid hormone

d. Oxytocin in childbirth 

22. Which of the below is NOT a sign of respiratory distress?

a. Speaking complete sentences 

b. Nasal flaring 

c. Changing of posture to ease breathing

d. Cyanosis 

23. If palpating the tragus of auricle causes pain, the problem

a. Sinusitis 

b. Pharyngitis

c. Otitis externa 

d. Otitis media

24. The organ that does not lie in the pelvic cavity is

a. Fallopian tube 

b. Transverse colon 

c.Urinary bladder    

d. Rectum est

25. The test used the diagnosis of trichomoniasis is 

a. Wet mount of vaginal fluid 

b. Ova and parasite fecal smear 

c. Specific serologic test

d. Enzyme-linked immunoassay (ELISA) test of serum 

26. The test that's most specific for myocardial damages is:

a. Troponin I 

b. Myoglobin 

d. Creatinine kinase 

right answer- A

27. Which of the below is NOT a component of HELLP syndrome? 

a. Hemolysis

b. Low platelet count 

c. Elevated liver enzymes 

d. Bleeding per vaginum 

28. Which of the below is the true statement about the H zone of the sarcomere? 

a. It is devoid of thick or thin filaments 

b It contains thick and thin filaments lying side by side 

c. It contains thin filaments only

d. It contains thick filaments only 

29. When performing suctioning on a patient, you should:

a. Apply suction continuously while inserting the catheter 

b. Apply suction intermittently as the catheter is inserted 

C. Perform suction on the patient for longer than 10 seconds each time 

d. Oxygenate the patient's lungs before and after suctioning procedure 

30. Which of the below is NOT a function of the fibrous skeleton of the heart? 

a. Acts as a point of insertion for cardiac muscle fibers 

b. Conducts the impulses from atria to ventricles 

C. Forms a structural foundation for the heart valves

d. Prevents overstretching of the valves 

31. Intermittent claudication is a sign of:

a. Arterial occlusive disease 

b. Myocardial infarction 

C. Nerve injury

d. Peripheral neuropathy 

32. In a patient taking high doses of acetaminophen over a prolonged period, the parameter to be monitored regularly is:

a. Prothrombin time 

b. GI irritation 

C. Liver function

d. Kidney function 

33. The type of assessment done to compare the client's current

status to previously obtained baseline data is called: 

a. Time-lapsed reassessment 

b. Emergency assessment 

c. Initial assessment 

d. Problem-focused assessment

34.Microcephaly is diagnosed when head circumference is less than below the average: 

a. 4 standard deviations 

b. 2 standard deviations

c. 1 standard deviation 

d. 3 standard deviations 

35. Newborn maturity rating is done using: 

a. Apgar score

b. Ballard score 

c. Chandler score 

d. Oleander score  

36  The group at the increased risk for herpes zoster is:

a. Infants with congenital infections 

b. Persons at advanced age 

c. Patients with atopic dermatitis 

d. Pregnant women

37 The Cranial nerve affected in bell's Palsy

a. Cranial nerve IX

b.  Cranial nerve V 

c. cranial nerve III

d.Cranial nerve VII 

38. The hormone that increase water reabsorption by increasing water channel or aquaporin

 a. Angiotensin

b. Antidiuretic hormone 

c. Aldosterone

d. Atrial natriuretic peptide 

39. A rapid grower among the following is

a. Mycobacterium bovis 

b. Mycobacterium abscessus 

c. Mycobacterium gordonae

d. Mycobacterium avium 

40. Which of the following is true with regards to pregnancy induced hypertension ? 

a. It is also called gestational hypertension 

b. There is raised BP before 20 weeks gestation 

c. Visual disturbances are always present

d. Proteinuria is usually present 

41. When there is a possibility of locked twins being born?

a. Dichorionic diamniotic twins 

b. First twin has cephalic and the second twin has breech presentation 

C. Fraternal twins 

d. First twin has breech and the second twin has cephalic presentation 

42. According to Maslow's hierarchy need to be well thought of by oneself as well as by others comes under: 

a. Self-awareness needs 

b. Physiological needs 

c. Security and safety needs

d. Self-esteem needs 

43. Tropomyosin in the muscle fiber is a protein 

a. Structural

b. Regulatory 

c. Anchoring

d. Contractile 

44. The 'Adam's Apple is formed by:

a. Cricoid cartilage 

b. Thyroid cartilage 

c. Epiglottis

d. Hyoid bone 

45. The causative agent for the disease scrapie belongs to the category of

b. Protozoans 

d. Bacteria 

46. Depolarization in a nerve action potential is due to:

a. Opening of sodium channels 

b. Opening of calcium channels 

c. Opening of potassium channels

d. Closing of sodium channels 

47. An affective disorder among the following is:

a. Bipolar disorder 

b. Somatoform disorder 

C. Schizophrenia

d. Phobic anxiety disorder 

48. The document that gives nurse the authority to carry out specific action under certain circumstances, often when a physician is not immediately available is called: 

a. Concept map

b. Standing order 

c. Prescription

d. Discharge summary 

49. Which of the following is NOT assimilated by eukaryotic cells? 

b. Sulfate 

c. Nitrogen

d. Lactate 

50. Unattractive man selects expensive, stylish clothes to draw

attention to himself. The defense mechanism exemplified 

b. Dissociation 

c. Conversion

d. Compensation

51. The most common cause of retinal detach

a. Diabetes mellitus 

b. Degenerative changes in the retina or vitreous 

c. Brain tumors

d. Trauma 

52. Scrub typhus is caused by:

a. Rickettsia prowazekii 

b. Orientia tsutsugamushi

c. Rickettsia typhi 

d. Rickettsia akari 

53. The mode of inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: 

a. X linked disease

b. Autosomal dominant 

C. Autosomal recessive 

d. Non-Mendelian 

54. Naegele's rule is used to calculate:

a. Cervical dilation 

b. Amniotic fluid

c. Gestational age 

d. Expected date of delivery 

55. The genera that need pyridoxal for growth is: 

a. Granulicatella

b. Aero coccus 

C. Enterococcus

d. Pediococcus 

56. Pepsinogen in the stomach is secreted by: 

a. Chief cells

b. G cells 

C. Goblet cells

d. Parietal cells 

57. Air bronchogram in X-ray is seen in the case of:

a. Sepsis 

b. Respiratory distress syndrome 

C. Tuberculosis

d. Bronchial asthma 

58. The first referral level in the healthcare system is:

a. Secondary health care 

b. Tertiary health care 

C. Primary health care 

d. Primordial health care 

59. Among the following the task that does NOT require a registered nurse but can be delegated to the home health aide is: 

a. Feeding and bathing the client 

b. Adjusting oxygen flow 

c. Teaching the client about medications

d. Assessing wound healing progress 

60. When a person's blood pressure drops, the kidneys responds by:

a. Slowing the release of ADH 

b. Producing aldosterone 

c. Secreting renin

d. Increasing urine output 

61. The vertical transmission of disease occurs through: 

a. Droplets

b. Mosquitoes 

C. Direct contact

d. Placenta 

62. The surgical intervention for pain management, which involves cutting a nerve root to relieve pain is called: 

a. Cordotomy

b. Rhizotomy 

c. Radio frequency ablation 

d. Cryoanalgesia 

63. Bleeding in the first trimester with no uterine contraction or

pain and no dilation of the cervix indicates: 

a. Threatened abortion 

b. Complete abortion

C. Inevitable abortion 

d. Missed abortion 

64. Which of the below is NOT a part of the nursing process of planning? 

a. Writing nursing interventions 

b. Formulating goals/desired outcomes 

C. Supervising delegated care

d. Prioritizing problems/diagnosis 

65. The condition in which false beliefs are firmly maintained even though they are not shared by others is called: 

a. Delirium

b. Hallucination 

c. Delusion

d. Illusion

66 The Minimal invasive technique by which an insulated lead wire with electrode (neurostimulator) is surgically implanted in the brain is called ?

a. Transcranial magnetic stimulation 

b. Functional MRI 

C. Deep brain stimulation

d. Electroconvulsive therapy 

67. The full from of DALY in the context of community health

a. Disability adapted life years 

b. Disease adjusted life years 

c. Disability adjusted life years

d. Disease adapted life years 

68. A mental illness specific to certain Indian population where

There is severe anxiety and hypochondriacal concerns are called: 

b. Dhat 

d. Root work 

69. The third phase of the body adaptation to stress is

b. Exhaustion 

c. Resistance

d. Rebound 

70. Which of the below is NOT a role played by a nurse? 

a. Caregiver

b. Communicator 

c. Counselor

d. Physician 

71. Which is NOT a high-risk factor that might affect workers in a construction company? 

a. Traumatic injuries 

b. Chest disease 

c. Malnutrition

d. Allergic diseases 

72. The action of the sympathetic system in the walls of airways is called as: 

a. Bronchoconstriction 

b. Increased secretion 

c. Increased gas exchange

d. Bronchodilation 

73. Folic acid supplements in pregnancy are mainly used for the prevention of: 

a. Anemia in mother 

b. Gestational diabetes

C. Neural tube defects 

d. Anemia in fetus 

74. The total number of fetal and early neonatal deaths per 1000

Live births are called: 

a. Fetal death

b. Perinatal mortality 

c. Intrauterine death 

d. Neonatal death 

75. Repeated involuntary or intentional passage of feces by a child in an inappropriate place, after the age when bowel control is normally expected is called: 

a. Night sweats

b. Nightmares 

c. Enuresis

d. Encopresis 

76. Proton pump in stomach is an example for:

a. Secondary active transport 

b. Simple diffusion 

c. Primary active transport

d. Facilitated diffusion 

77. Bacillus cereus food poisoning is commonly associated with the consumption of: 

a. Fried rice

b. Green beans 

c. Bottled honey 

d . Baked potato 

78. The normal order of event taking place during the second The stage of labor is: 

a. Descent - flexion-internal rotation - crowning - extension 

b. Descent - flexion-internal - rotation - extension-crowning 

c. Descent - flexion-crowning-extension-internal- rotation 

d. Descent - internal rotation-crowing-extension- flexion

79. Pseudo hyphae are seen in:

a. Mucor 

b. Penicillium

c. Aspergillus

d. Candida 

80. An immovable joint is called:

a. Synarthrosis

b. polyarthritis

c. Amphiarthrosis

d. Diarthrosis 

81. A plane that passes through the midline of the body and Divides it into equal right and left sides is called:

a. Para-sagittal plane 

b. Coronal plane 

c Mid-sagittal plane 

d. Oblique plane 

82 During the age of 1-3 years, the developmental stage according to the Freud's theory is: 

a. Anal  

b. Oral 

d. Genital 

83  Which of the below is NOT a part of the secondary prevention

of mental illness? 

a. Rehabilitation 

b. Early detection    

C. screening  

d. Crisis stabilization 

84. The causative agent for bacterial vaginosis is: 

a. Herpes simplex

b. Chlamydia trachomatis 

c. Candida albicans 

d. Gardnerella vaginalis 

85. The microorganism that is usually a part of the normal

vaginal flora but can cause meningitis in newborn is: 

a. Corynebacterium species 

b. Candida albicans 

c. Staphylococcus epidermidis

d. Group B streptococci 

86. The correct order of the phases in the bacterial growth curve

a. Lag → exponential → stationary → decline 

b. Lag → stationary → exponential → decline 

C. Lag -exponential → decline → stationary

d. Lag → decline → exponential → stationary 

right answer-A 

87. The full form of GAS in the context of response to stress is:

a. General adaptation system 

b. General alarm signals 

c. General adaptation syndrome

d. General alarm syndrome 

88. The term resourcefulness implies:

a. Sense of belonging 

b. Involvement in spiritual activities 

C. Problem solving ability

d. Ability to handle stressful situations 

89. A cell that takes part in innate immunity by killing virus infected cells are

 a. Neutrophil

b. Macrophage 

d. NK cell 

90. Schultze method and Mathew Duncan method describe:

a. Ways to monitor fetal heart rate 

b. Delivery of the presenting part 

C. Method of detachment of placenta

d. Ways of presentation of the fetus 

91. Poor skin turgor in neonates and infants indicates:

a. Hypoglycemia 

b. Hypocalcemia 

c. Dehydration 

d. Hypertonia 

92. The terms veracity in the context of nursing values refers to: 

a. Being fair and justice 

b. Being answerable for one's actions 

C. Telling the truth 

d. Being faithful to agreements

93. A group of related ideas or statements is called: 

b. Philosophy 

C. Conceptual framework 

d Paradigm 

94. The meaning of remission is:

a. The person is clinically cured 

b. The severity of disease increases 

c. The symptoms reappear 

d. The disease is present, but the person does not experience symptoms 

95. The relative risk of a disease can be obtained from:

a. Experimental study 

b. Case-control study 

c. Cohort study

d. Case study 

96. Which of the below is an example of unintentional tort? 

a. Defamation

b. Assault 

c. Negligence

d. Invasion of privacy 

97. Respiratory rate multiplied by tidal volume gives:

a. Minute volume 

b. Expiratory reserve volume 

C. Total lung capacity

d. Maximum voluntary ventilation 

98. A Non-opioid analgesic of the below is: 

a. Butorphanol

b. Pentazocine 

c. Naproxen

d. Buprenorphine 

99. The genetic exchange process in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a virus is:

A.  Transfection

B. Transduction

C. Conjugation

D. Transformation

right answer - B

100. A group of related ideas or statements is called

Paradigm 

Theory 

Conceptual framework

right answer -D

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ESIC Nursing Officer Question Paper 2019 Shift-II Pdf Available for Download

• Post author: Proudofnurses.com
• Post published: September 8, 2023
• Post category: Solved Answer
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ESIC Nursing Officer Question Paper 2019 Shift-II

Question complete all

ESIC  SCREENING TEST FOR THE POST OF NURSING OFFICER,  FOR THE YEAR  2019 SHIFT -II QUESTION PAPER  

DATE OF EXAM: 

Q.1. The size of which part of the eye contributes to controlling the amount of light entering the eye.

• Macula lutea

Q.2. Which of the following is not a typical difference factor between benign and malignant tumors?

• Growth rate
• Encapsulation
• Cell differentiation
• Size of the tumor

Q 3. Aganglionic disease of the intestinal tract which causes inadequate motility is termed as:

• Ulcerative colitis
• Crohn’s disease
• Hirschsprung’s disease
• Diverticular disease

Q 4. Eclampsia is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

• Mild facial edema
• BP greater than 160/110 Hg
• Marked proteinuria

Q 5. When assessing physical development of the five years old you would find it abnormal if he

• Needed to go up a stairway one step at a time
• Could catch a large rubber ball
• Could stack up pile of six blocks
• Cold jumps on one foot a few times

Q 6. Vital statistics include the following EXCEPT

• Life expectancy
• Education rate
• Morbidity and mortality statistics

Q7. To properly stage a pressure ulcer:

• The patient must be supine
• The skin must be completely dry
• Natural light must be used
• Eschar must be removed

Q.8. The inflammatory/exudative phase of wound healing will  last for

• 21 days to a month

Q.9. In Erickson’s theory, adolescent develops a sense of

Q.10. The bacteria that retain the stain in Gram’s method of staining is a:

• Gram positive bacteria
• Spores of bacteria
• Broad spectrum bacteria
• Gram negative bacteria

Q.11. When considering the principle of growth and development remember that

• Although development occurs in an orderly sequence, the rate may very between individuals
• Most children can run before they walk
• Development occurs evenly, with periods of no growth occurring every third year
• All children should grow in the same rate, all four years old should weight within 4 kg of each other

Q.12. Secondary prevention is:

• Safe water supply, Vector and animal reservoir control
• Early detection (diagnosis) of disease & Prompt treatment
• Good living and working condition
• Nutritional counseling

Q.13. The reflex action of the toes in indicative of abnormalities in the motor control pathway leading from cerebral cortex.

• Romberg test
• Patellar reflex
• Babinski reflex
• Achilles reflex

Q.14. Nurse use the nursing process as a method of:

• Planning organizing and delivering patient care
• Communicating with patients and families
• Meeting the legal requirements and standards in nursing
• Meeting public expectations of nurse

Q.15. Which of the following would not promote trust in the nurse patient relationship?

• Examining a wound without providing privacy
• Fulfilling promises
• Returning at the stated time
• Maintaining confidentiality

Q.16. Which of the following is the most abundant type of blood  cells?

• Erythrocyte
• Thrombocyte

Q.17. “Para” is defined as:

• Total number of pregnancies
• Born from beginning of 38 to 42 weeks
• Any pregnancy terminates before the period of viability
• Number of past pregnancies gone beyond period of viability

Q.18. Role of community nurse in school Health program, EXCEPT

• Assist In school medical examination and follow up
• Assist in screening physical mental and other special examination of children in school
• Assist in communicable disease control
• To provide immunization to the children

Q.19. A significant predictor of fetal well-being is, if fetal heart rate is:

• 100-120 beats/min
• 180-200 beats/min
• 120-160 beats/min
• 160-200 beats/min

Q.20. The major nutrients involved in fluid balance are

• Vitamin B9 and magnesium
• Fats and proteins
• Chloride and carbohydrates
• Potassium and sodium

Q.21. Cerclage (encircling cervix with suture) is done for patients  with

• Complete abortion
• Incomplete abortion
• Threatened abortion
• Incompetent cervix

Q.22. Bipolar disorders are treated with the following medication  EXCEPT

• Carbamazepine
• Valproic acid
• Amphetamine

Q.23. Rh Negative mother should receive ___globulin

• RhO (M) globulin
• RhO (D) immunoglobulin
• Lecithin/Sphingomyelin
• Acetylcholinesterase

Q.24. Complete dilation of cervix to birth of a baby is staged as:

• Stage 4 of labor
• Stage 3 of labor
• Stage 1 of labor
• Stage 2 of labor

Q.25. Bulging sack like lesion filled with spinal fluid and spinal ord element is:

• Hydrocephalus
• Myelomeningocele
• Meningocele
• Spinal bifida occulta

Q.26. The following are presenting symptoms of patient with catatonic schizophrenia EXCEPT

• Sudden onset of mutism
• Have dangerous periods of agitation and explosive behavior
• Disorganized behavior and speech
• Stereotyped position with waxy flexibility

Q.27. The brain region which is responsible for coordination of  voluntary muscular movement posture and balance.

• Medulla Oblongata
• Cerebral cortex
• Spinal cord

Q.28. The complications for ventricular septal defect are all of the following, Except

• Pulmonary hypertension
• Cerebral palsy
• Endocarditis
• Heart failure

Q.29. The main clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema are as follows, EXCEPT

• Caught with expectoration
• Hypotension

Q.30. Principles of ethical practice includes the following, EXCEPT

• Maleficence
• Beneficence
• Respect for autonomy

Q.31. The patient with appendicitis usually exhibits the following clinical manifestations.

• Rebound tenderness at the McBurney’s Point
• Pain occurs immediately after eating
• Heartburn regurgitation and dysphagia
• Hematemesis or melena

Q.32. To encourage an infant’s cognitive and psychosocial development parents and other caregivers should

• Allow the baby to play alone several hours each day
• Firmly explain the rules of acceptable behavior
• Give loving consistent care, including playing
• Keep the baby with them at all times so he or she is safe

Q.33. Alcohol withdrawal symptoms are as follows, EXCEPT

• Anxiety and insomnia
• Hallucinations

Q.34. The level of care which is oriented towards the promotion and maintenance of health, the prevention of Community disease, the management of common episodic disease and the monitoring of stable or chronic conditions:

• Primary care Level
• Secondary care level
• Advanced care level
• Tertiary care level

Q.35. Mantoux Test (Purified Protein Derivative) is significantly positive when the erythema measures.

• 10 mm-14.9 mm
• 15 mm or greater
• 3.5 mm -9.9 mm

Q.36. Repetitive, uncontrollable thoughts and acts (E.g. Rituals , rigidity, inflexibility) is termed as: (MHN)

• Ritualistic behavior
• Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
• Apprehension

Q.37. In what ways could hepatitis A virus be spread in if one of the kitchen employees is in the reservoir:

• While he speaks and sneezes, through droplet route
• Oral-fecal route, through his hands
• If he sustains a cut through blood borne
• While he coughs out through air borne route

Q.38. Tumors within Sella turcica and small adenomas of the pituitary glands can be removed through

• Infratentorial approach
• Transsphenoidal approach
• Supratentorial approach

Q.39. Patient complains of pain and has redness with swelling at the site of IV. The nurse must

• Stop infusion and remove IV cannula
• Start nasal oxygen
• Change IV tubing and the solution
• Apply warm moist pack to the reddened area

Q.40. The commonest drug which is administered during an anaphylactic reaction

• Injection Epinephrine
• Anticonvulsant

Q.41. Potential adverse effects of surgery and anesthesia are as follows, EXCEPT

• Thrombosis from compression of blood vessels or stasis
• Malignant hyperthermia/hypothermia
• Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
• Myocardial depression, bradycardia, circulatory collapse
• 42. The extracellular fluid includes the following EXCEPT
• Cerebrospinal fluid and fluid in the interstitial spaces
• Fluid within the cells
• Blood, plasma and lymph
• Synovial fluid, pericardial fluid, and pleural fluid

Q.43. The most common method of microorganism transfer from one person to another in the hospital setting is prevented by

• Disinfecting instruments in special solutions
• Changing bed linen daily
• Washing hands thoroughly and frequently
• Filtering air in the hospital

Q.44. Wearing seat belts, safety helmets and other safety equipment’s are example for:

• Primary health promotion behavior
• Holistic health care model
• Secondary health promotion behavior
• Tertiary health promotion behavior

Q.45. Considering the chain of infection, a reservoir might be

• A contaminated water supply
• An uninfected patient
• Staphylococcus bacteria
• A tick carrying Lyme disease

Q46. The nurse is assigned to a patient who has a bacterial pneumonia and is under droplet precautions, which personal protective equipment (PPE) will she wear to deliver the meal tray?

• No PPE required
• Only mask is needed
• Special filtration mask and gloves
• Gown mask gloves shoe covers

Q.47. The Three Features of a Community

• Physical-Mental-Social
• Primary, Secondary and tertiary
• Locations, population and social system
• Agent-Host-environment

Q.48. The characteristics of lochia rubra is:

• Pink/brown with flesh odor
• Bloody with fishy odor
• Yellow-white

Q.49. Positive-definite sign of pregnancy is:

• Visualization of fetus by ultrasound
• Uterine enlargement

Q.50. The key instruction to be given to the patient and the caregiver with epilepsy is as follows, EXCEPT

• Take medications daily
• Maintain medication and seizure chart
• Avoid alcohol, smoking, hypoglycemia
• Take showers in bathtubs

Q.51. The amount of air passing into and out of the lungs during each cycle of breathing is referred as:

• Tidal volume
• Total lung capacity
• Residual volume
• Vital capacity

Q.52. In rheumatoid arthritis, during the acute phase the values which are significant are

• ESR and C reactive Protein (CRP) elevation
• RFT elevation (renal Function Test)
• CBC elevation (Complete Blood Count)
• LFT elevation (Liver Function Test)

Q.53. Progressive thinning and shortening of cervix are defined as:

• Contraction

Q.54. Philosophy of Primary Health Care are as follows EXCEPT

• Equity and justice
• Inter-sectoral approach
• Primary prevention
• Inter-relationship of health and development

Q.55. The normal levels of sodium in plasma is

• 135-143 mEq/L
• 97-106 mEq/L
• 90-196 mg/100 ml
• 60-100 mg/dl

Q.56. Compression of facial nerve in the temporal bone will lead to

• Gullian-Barre syndrome
• Multiple sclerosis
• Bell’s palsy

Q.57. Inborn errors of metabolism are the following, EXCEPT

• Cystic fibrosis
• Tay-Sachs disease
• Phenylketonuria
• Turner’s syndrome

Previous Year Papers 1059

Q.58. The most significant characteristics experienced by a patient with depression is:

• Aggressive, abusive or violent behavior
• Hypervigilance and nightmares
• Lack of impulse control
• Depressed mood and loss of pleasure or interest

Q.59. The elderly individual is at greater risk for dehydration than the middle-aged adult because_

• The elderly has more muscle mass
• The elderly drink little fluid
• Compensatory mechanism works less efficiently
• Their bodies are almost 80% water

Q.60. False labor manifestation are as follows, EXCEPT

• Contraction lessen with activity or rest
• Cervix progressively effaced and dilated
• Abdominal discomfort
• Contractions irregular

Q.61. The following are the important preoperative nursing care for a patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy, EXCEPT

• Hormonal therapy
• Assure nutrition and correct fluid and electrolyte balance
• Promoting urinary drainage
• Acid-ash diet to treat infection

Q.62. The person who becomes short of breath with little exertion, such as when eating a meal, has what kind of respiratory problem?

• Cheyne-strokes respiration
• Hyperventilation

Q.63. Reye’s syndrome is associated with

• Hemolytic transfusion reactions
• Biliary colic
• Sickle cell crisis
• Use of aspirin with viral illness

Q.64. APGAR score is considered excellent if the score is

Q.65. One cardiac cycle completes in_______

• 0.57 second
• 0.9 seconds
• 0.8 seconds
• 0.1 seconds

Q.66. Phototherapy is indicated for children with

• Hemolytic disease
• Necrotizing enterocolitis
• Hypoglycemia
• Hyperbilirubinemia

Q.67. Artificially acquired immunity is obtained by

• Recovering from a disease
• Exposure to a disease
• Being breast fed
• Immunization with antibody response

Q.68. The drug of choice to treat Bulimia nervosa is

• Benzodiazepines
• Antidepressants (E.g. SSRI)
• Thiamine IV
• IV Glucose 10%

Q.69. Behavioral clues of impending suicide are as follows, EXCEPT

• Gives away valuable possessions
• Becomes energetic after a period of server depression
• Withdraws from social activities and plans
• Hypervigilance and exaggerated startle response

Q.70. Currant jelly like stools containing and mucus among 3 months to 3 years old child is suspected to have.

• Abdominal hernia
• Meckel’s diverticulum
• Intussusception

Q.71. The traditional sources-oriented narrative type of charting is characterized by all of the following forms, EXCEPT the

• Database form
• Doctor’s progress sheet
• Laboratory sheet
• History and physical examination form

Q.72. All elderly tends to be more susceptible to infection because of:

• Increased exposure of pathogens
• A decline in immune function
• Poor nutritional status
• Lack of exercises

Q.73. Responses to avoid in therapeutic communications are as follows, EXCEPT:

• Advice giving
• Closed-ended questions
• Reflecting and clarifying
• Arguing and judgmental responses

Q.74. The classical substances that increasing the sensitivity of pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin is

• Prostaglandins

Q.75. HbA1C indicates post serum glucose levels over previous

• 2 months period
• 1-month period
• 3 months period
• 6 months period

Q.76. Standard precaution requires the use of protective eye wear when

• Caring for a patient with cough
• When a wound is oozing blood
• Invasive procedures are performed
• There is a danger of body fluids splashing

Q.77. When a pulse rate is irregular, it is best to count the

• Radial pulse for a full minute
• Apical pulse for a full minute
• Apical pulse for 30 seconds
• Radial pulse for 30 seconds.

Q.78. Gestational diabetes increases risk for the following, EXCEPT

• Prematurity and still birth
• Congenital anomalies
• Small for date fetus

Q.79. In the liver bacteria that found their way into portal circulation is destroyed by

• Hydrochloric acid
• Leukocytosis
• Kupffer cells

Q.80. Example for autosomal recessive inheritance_

• Craniofacial disorders
• Skeletal disorders

Q.81. Medical asepsis differs from surgical asepsis in that it is aimed at:

• Preventing transmission of microorganisms
• Preventing entry of microorganisms into the body
• Sterilizing all equipment
• Killing all microorganisms

Q.82. Preterm labor is when it occurs between

• 32-36 weeks of gestation
• 20-37 weeks of gestation
• 24-30 weeks of gestation
• 16-20 weeks of gestation

Q.83. Approach to health is that acknowledges and respect the interaction of a person’s mind body and spirit within the environment is termed as:

• Holistic Health Model
• Health Belief Model
• High-Level Wellness Model
• Clinical Model

Q.84. The main cause of genital warts (CondylomataAcuminata) is

• Neisseria gonorrhea
• Pelvic inflammatory disease
• Human papilloma virus (HPV)
• Herpes simplex virus

Q.85. The cleft palate usually gets repaired during

• 12-18 months

Q.86. What would be the next number in the series: 2,6,18,54,?

Q.87. The sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 5 cm, 3 cm. Then the largest  angle of the triangle is:

Q.88. Two pole of equal heights are standing opposite each other on side of the road. Which is 40 m wide. From a point between them on the road the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60° and 30° respectively. Then the heights of the pole is:

Q.89. The value of 1-tan2 45°equals:

             1+tan2 45°

Q.90. A number consists of two digits. The digit in ten’s place exceeds the digit in the unit’s place by 2 The sum of the digits is of the number. Then the number is: 6

Q. 91. The total amount invested by three persons A, B and C is * 1290 so that A’s share is 3 times B’s and B’s share is 7 times c’s Then the share of C is                                                            2

               4

Q.92. The height of a right circular cylinder is 14 cm and its curved surface is 704 Sq. cm. Then its volume is given by:

Q.93. Chilika lake is located in which state?

• West Bengal

Q.94. Which country hosted 2018 FIFA world cup?

Q.95. Who is the writer of “wide angle”?

• Rahul Dravid
• Anil Kumble
• Shane Warne
• Shoaib Akhtar

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Download RRB Nursing Officer Previous Year Solved Question Papers PDF

RRB Conducts Nursing Officer Paramedical exam to fill nursing officer vacancy in various railways hospitals.  RRB nursing Vacancies usually come every two or three years. You can Download RRB staff nurse Question papers below.

These previous papers with answer key provide helpful insights for all paramedical exams conducted by RRB. A large number of candidates apply for RRB nursing officer exams. So exam is conducted in shifts.

The RRB nursing officer papers has two type questions, questions from nursing subjects and general awareness questions.  Exam has total 100 questions.

Download previous year RRB Staff nurse complete question papers here.

RRB Nursing Officer 2019 paper – Shift 1

Download Link:  RRB Nursing Officer 2019 Shift 1 paper Solved PDF – Download

RRB Nursing Officer 2019 paper – Shift 2

Download Link:  RRB Nursing Officer 2019 Shift 3 paper Solved PDF – Download

Whenever RRB conduct more exams of nursing, then more question papers will be added here. Also practice form CGHS and ESIC Nursing officer papers available on nursegyan. Good luck

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ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Paper Download PDF

Get links to Download ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Paper PDF. Here you will get ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Paper PDF for the year 2019 and 2016.

Table of Contents

The Employee State Insurance Corporation conducts recruitment of eligible candidates for several posts including Staff Nurse. For the post of ESIC Nursing Officer, candidates have to appear for the written examination based on which qualified candidates will be selected and appointed for the post of Staff Nurse. To prepare for the ESIC Nursing Officer Examination, candidates must study from the ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Papers as they offer useful information. Read the article below and download ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Paper PDFs for free.

ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Paper

For the ESIC Nursing Officer exam, candidates can access free PDFs of ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Papers for their preparation. These PDFs include both question papers and answers, assisting candidates in understanding the exam format and enhancing their subject knowledge.

The selection process for the recruitment of Nursing Officer is merit-based on the written exam. Candidates need to score above the ESIC Nursing Officer cut-off marks to qualify for the post. Accessing free PDFs of ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Papers can facilitate this. We have provided the previous year question papers for practice. By downloading and practising these papers, candidates gain valuable insight into the exam structure, question types, and effective answering techniques. Candidates can now download these papers and begin practising.

Benefits of Solving ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Paper

ESIC Staff Nurse Previous Year Papers are highly recommended study materials by experts for competitive examinations. They offer several advantages to candidates appearing for the ESIC Staff Nurse Examination. By practising more papers, you can develop effective strategies for tackling different types of questions, including prioritizing topics, managing exam time, and addressing challenging questions.

• Staying Updated: Reviewing previous year’s papers allows you to track changes in exam patterns and ensures your study aligns with current criteria.
• Understanding Exam Structure: Previous year’s papers provide insights into question distribution, marking schemes, and exam patterns, aiding in better preparation.
• Recognizing Question Types: Solving past exams familiarizes you with common question types, enabling focused study on specific subjects and question formats.
• Time Management: Practicing with past papers helps refine time management skills by learning to allocate exam time effectively across different sections.
• Identifying Important Topics: Analyzing past exams helps identify topics likely to appear, guiding study priorities.
• Self-Evaluation: Completing previous year’s papers allows self-assessment, identifying strengths and weaknesses and refining problem-solving techniques.
• Building Confidence: Correctly answering questions from previous years boosts confidence, reducing test day anxiety and validating preparation.
• Realistic Exam Experience: Previous year’s questions simulate real exam conditions, providing experience in handling difficulty levels, time pressure, and exam settings.
• Concept Review: Working through past papers facilitates comprehensive concept revision, enhancing retention and understanding of key concepts.
• Strategic Planning: Continued practice enables the development of effective strategies for managing various question types, including topic selection, exam scheduling, and handling difficult questions.
• Improving Accuracy: Practicing with past papers refines problem-solving techniques and increases accuracy, essential for success in competitive exams.

How to Download ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Paper

ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Question Papers are crucial for enhancing your exam readiness for the recruitment test. These papers aid in structuring your study plan effectively and offer valuable practice. You can easily access the ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Year Papers to supplement your exam preparation by following these steps:

• Step-1. Visit the official Adda247 website or download the Adda247 app.
• Step-2. Sign in or create your account.
• Step-3. Navigate to the section dedicated to the previous year papers.
• Step-4. Search for the “ESIC Nursing Officer” exam.
• Step-5. Select the desired exam from the list.
• Step-6. Browse through the available previous year papers. Choose the PDF you wish to access.
• Step-7. Download the PDF and save it for your reference during your preparation.

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How can I access the ESIC Nursing Officer previous year papers?

You can access the previous year papers through the official adda247 website or app.

Why are ESIC Nursing Officer previous year papers important for exam preparation?

Previous Year Papers provide insights into the exam pattern. They provide a clear idea of question types. This helps candidates plan their study strategy effectively.

What are the benefits of solving the ESIC Nursing Officer previous year papers?

Solving previous year papers provides insights into the exam pattern, helps you understand the types of questions asked, improves time management skills, and allows you to assess your preparation level. It also aids in identifying important topics and building confidence.

Is it necessary to solve all the previous year papers?

While it's not mandatory to solve all previous year papers, it is recommended to solve a representative sample from different years. This ensures a comprehensive understanding of the exam pattern and helps you cover a wide range of topics.

Can I find answer keys for ESIC Nursing Officer previous year papers?

Yes, answer keys for ESIC Nursing Officer previous year papers are often available along with the papers. You can find them on the official website of Testbook or in various exam preparation books.

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